Indian Polity - Objective GK Questions

Indian Polity - Objective Questions

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91. All the following are fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution except—
(A) The right to equality
(B) The right against exploitation
(C) The right to adequate means of livelihood
(D) The right to freedom of religion

92. The total number of members in the legislative council of a state cannot exceed—
(A) One-fourth of the total numbers in the legislative Assembly
(B) One-third of the total number of members of the legislative five assembly
(C) One-sixth of the total number of members of the legislative Assembly
(D) No such limit has been fixed

93. Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the—
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 40th Amendment
(C) 39th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment

94. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 500
(B) 525
(C) 542
(D) 552

95. How many language have been recognised by the constitution ?
(A) 13
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 22

96. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

97. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of—
(A) The Speaker
(B) The Chief Minister
(C) The Governor
(D) The President

98. To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have completed the age of—
(A) 35 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 25 years

99. The Planning Commission of India is—
(A) A statutory body
(B) An advisory body
(C) A constitutional body
(D) An independent and autonomous body

100. Which of the following states/union territories has a Legislative Assembly consisting of only 30 members ?
(A) Puducherry
(B) Mizoram
(C) Goa
(D) All the above

101. The Attorney General of India is appointed by—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President of India
(D) The UPSC

102. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha—
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

103. Which of the following states/union territories have a common High Court ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(D) Assam and Bengal

104. The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was—
(A) 43rd
(B) 41st
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th

105. The Union Cabinet is responsible to—
(A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The Lok Sabha only
(D) The electorate

106. The Governor of a state in India is—
(A) Directly elected by the people of the state
(B) Appointed by the Prime Minister
(C) Appointed by the President
(D) Appointed by the State Chief Minister

107. The total number of members of legislative council can in no case be less than—
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) No minimum strength has been fixed

108. The right to vote in India is given to all people on the basis of—
(A) Education
(B) Age
(C) Property
(D) Religion

109. The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state is—
(A) 450
(B) 500
(C) 400
(D) 525

110. Parliamentary system in India has been borrowed from which country ?
(A) America
(B) Britain
(C) Australia
(D) Ireland

111. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 20

112. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right against exploitation
(B) Equal pay for equal work
(C) Equality before law
(D) Right to freedom of religion

113. Panchyati Raj is organised at the—
(A) Block level
(B) Village and block level
(C) Village, block and district level
(D) Village, block, district and state level

114. Which of the following courts is responsible for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Both (A) and (B) above

115. Consider the following statements—
1. In Part IX of the constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2. The Eleventh schedule of the constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India and the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

116. Consider the following statements–
1. The Governor of a state may reserve a Bill for consideration of the President of India.
2. The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinace issued in the state at any time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

117. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Parliamentary system of India. If the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the power to with hold his assent from the Bill.
2. As per the constitution of India the union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

118. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharti vs The state of Kerala related to which one of the following issues ?
(A) Acquiring private land for Government use
(B) Exploitation of women at work place
(C) Basic feature of the constitution of India
(D) Reservation of jobs for the OBCs in the Government service

119. Assertion (A) : In the Indian system, the executive cannot impose any tax without legislative sanction.
Reason (R) : It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorised by an appropriation Act.
Codes :(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

120. Consider the following statements—
1. The design of the National flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
2. The National Anthem was first sung on 27th December, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers with Hints
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D)
94. (D) According to the constitution, maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552. States are represented by 530 members and the Union Territories by 20 members. The President nominates two Anglo Indian members if that community does not have sufficient representation in the house. The present strength of Lok Sabha is 545. There are 530 members from states 13 members from Union Territories and two members are nominated by the President.
95. (D) There are 22 languages in the 8th schedule of the constitution.
96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (C) 105. (C)
106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (B)
111. (A) The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from the field of Literature, Art, Science and Social Work.
112. (B) The constitution originally classified the fundamental rights into seven groups but with the elimination of right to property (Art. 31) by the 44th Amendment Act, in 1978, there are now only six groups of fundamental rights.
Rights of equality (Art. 14-18)
Right to freedom (Art. 19-21)
Right aginst exploitation (Art. 23 and 24)
Right to freedom of religion (Art. 25-28)
Cultural and education rights (Art. 29-31)
Right to constitutional remedies (Art. 32-35)
113. (C) Panchayati Raj Structure is organised at top level (district), Middle level (Block Tehsil, Taluk) and Base level Village or group villages) Districts—Zila Parishad consists of the president of the Panchayat Samities and other members elected, nominated and co-opted.
114. (A) The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights is itself a guaranteed rights as provided for in Art. 32 of the constitution. Thus whenever the state or any other authority encroaches upon a citizen’s rights. The Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue directions or orders or writs, whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement of the right.
The important writs are—
Habeas Corpus, Mandamus Prohibition, Certiorari and Quowarranto.
115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (C) 119. (C)120. (C)