UP PCS Combined State Exam : Solved Paper

U.P. PCS Combined State/Lower Subordinate Services
Special (Pre.) Exam., 2004
(Held on 24-5-2009)
Indian History : Solved Paper

1. Which one of the following regions did not constitute a separate suba (province) under Akbar ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Bengal
(C) Bihar
(D) Awadh
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following statements about Bukka I of the Vijayanagar empire is not correct ?
(A) He instilled new vigour into Hindu Society
(B) He renovated temples
(C) Under his fostering care Sayana wrote commentaries on Vedas
(D) He adopted measures to uplift the Shudras
Ans : (D)

3. Sayana is associated with—
(A) The Chola Kingdom
(B) Vijayanagar Kingdom
(C) Hoyasala Kingdom
(D) Bahmani Kingdom
Ans : (B)


4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Accession of Aurangzeb
(b) Promulgation of Mahzar
(c) Battle of Khanva
(d) Accession of Akbar
List-II
1. 1527 A.D.
2. 1556 A.D.
3. 1579 A.D.
4. 1659 A.D.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (B)

5. Consider the following statements about Kabir and Nanak—
1. Their ideas were drawn both from Bhakti and Sufi traditions.
2. They expressed the sentiments of rural masses.
3. They made strong plea for Hindu-Muslim unity.
4. Their followers founded religious communities.
Select your answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans : (D)

6. Arrange the following Chisti Saints in correct chronological order—
1. Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia
2. Syed Muhammad Gesudaraz
3. Baba Farid Ganjshakar
4. Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirage-Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following Sultans assumed the title of Caliph himself ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khalji
(D) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Ans : (C)

8. Which one of the following Sufi orders laid great stress on practicing mystic music ?
(A) Chisti
(B) Suharawardi
(C) Qadiri
(D) Naqshbandi
Ans : (A)

9. Who among the following Hindu Painters was sent by Jehangir to make a portrait of Shah Abbas I of Persia ?
(A) Basawan
(B) Bishan Das
(C) Dasrath
(D) Manohar
Ans : (B)

10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar —Xerome Xavier
(B) Aurangzeb —Edward Terry
(C) Shahjahan —Peter Mundi
(D) Jehangir —Sir Thomas Roe
Ans : (B)

11. In which year was the decree called ‘Mahzar’ issued during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) 1560 A.D.
(B) 1572 A.D.
(C) 1576 A.D.
(D) 1579 A.D.
Ans : (D)

12. The ‘Razmanama’ which was compiled by several Persian scholars was a translation of—
(A) Panchatantra
(B) Ramayana
(C) Mahabharata
(D) Rigveda
Ans : (C)

13. During the Mughal rule the Qazi-ul-Quzat was—
(A) Head of the Finance department
(B) Censor of Public morals
(C) Chief judge of the empire
(D) Incharge of charities
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar : Maan Bai
(B) Aurangzeb : Udaipuri Mahal
(C) Jehangir : Manmati
(D) Shahjahan : Jehan Ara
Ans : (A)

15. Which was the chief or main region of copper mines in Mughal period ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Agra
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following statements is correct about Shivaji ?
(A) His movement was supported by all the Maratha Watandars
(B) The smaller Watandars formed the back bone of his movement
(C) He abolished the Watandari system
(D) He did not fight with bigger Maratha Watandars
Ans : (B)

17. Which one of the following was not included in the ‘Asta Pradhan’ of Shivaji ?
(A) Sumant
(B) Majmudar
(C) Vakiyanavis
(D) Vakeel
Ans : (D)

18. What was the rate of land revenue in the administration of Shivaji ?
(A) 2/5 portion of the yield
(B) 1/2 portion of the yield
(C) 1/3 portion of the yield
(D) 1/4 portion of the yield
Ans : (A)

19. Why did Shivaji decide to collect ‘Chauth’ and ‘Sardeshmukhi’ ?
(A) To increase the source of income
(B) To expand his territories
(C) To consolidate his political influence
(D) Because of the opposition of Muslim rulers
Ans : (A)

20. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Shivaji signed the Treaty of Purandar.
Reason (R) : He had lost all hopes of resistance to the Mughals.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

21. When was Bombay transferred to the East India Company by Charles II ?
(A) 1662 A.D.
(B) 1664 A.D.
(C) 1666 A.D.
(D) 1668 A.D.
Ans : (D)

22. Who of the following had said that Victory of Plassey was a victory of betrayal ?
(A) Orme
(B) H. H. Dodwell
(C) Lord Clive
(D) P. E. Roberts
Ans : (B)

23. Name the English man who tried to obtain from Akbar a Firman for trade in Gujarat ?
(A) Ralph Fitch
(B) John Mildenhall
(C) Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Thomas Stephens
Ans : (B)

24. The Dutch established their first settlement in Bengal at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Chinsura
(C) Serampur
(D) Balasore
Ans : (D)

25. Who is credited with the following statement regarding the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857
“The Meerut outbreak was sudden and short-lived like a summer gale” ?
(A) S. N. Sen
(B) S. B. Chaudhari
(C) V. D. Savarkar
(D) R. C. Majumdar
Ans : (A)

26. When did the Marathas capture Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese ?
(A) 1695 A.D.
(B) 1713 A.D.
(C) 1720 A.D.
(D) 1739 A.D.
Ans : (D)

27. The Diwani right of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was obtained by the English East India Company under the treaty of—
(A) Alinagar
(B) Faizabad
(C) Allahabad
(D) Benaras
Ans : (C)

28. Find out the correct chronological order of the following events from the code given below—
1. Treaty of Amritsar
2. Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
3. Treaty of Lahore
4. East India Company’s alliance with Mewar.
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 3, 2
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1
Ans : (B)

29. By which of the following treaties did the Peshwa accept the Subsidiary Alliance with the British ?
(A) Treaty of Purandhar
(B) Treaty of Bassein
(C) Treaty of Salbai
(D) Treaty of Surji Arjungaon
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following native states was first to conclude Subsidiary Alliance with East India Company ?
(A) Avadh
(B) Mewar
(C) Mysore
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (D)

31. Who among the following historians has remarked that the Government of Bengal between the period 1765–1772 was a robber state ?
(A) G. W. Forrest
(B) Lord Macaulay
(C) K. M. Panikkar
(D) Nand Lal Chatterji
Ans : (C)

32. On what ground was Avadh annexed into British Empire ?
(A) Doctrine of Lapse
(B) Alleged misgovernment
(C) Failure to pay subsidy
(D) Maintenance of relations with foreign powers
Ans : (B)

33. Nearly one third of soldiers of the famous Bengal Army had their homes in—
(A) Punjab
(B) Avadh
(C) Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following native states was annexed by the British on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Avadh
(B) Punjab
(C) Jhansi
(D) Mysore
Ans : (C)

35. Match List-I with List-II and find out the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Theosophical Society
(b) Prarthana Samaj
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Ram Krishna Mission
List-II
1. Swami Vivekanand
2. Mrs. Annie Besant
3. M. G. Ranade
4. Ram Mohan Roy
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (A)

36. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Tipu Sultan planted the tree of liberty at Seringapattam.
Reason (R) : The principles of French Revolution had made a deep impression on the mind of Tipu Sultan.
Select the answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

37. By the enactment of British Parliament when did the East India Company cease to be a trading Company ?
(A) 1784 A.D.
(B) 1833 A.D.
(C) 1813 A.D.
(D) 1773 A.D.
Ans : (B)

38. What is the correct chronological order of setting up of the following Commissions ?
1. Macdonell Commission
2. First Industrial Commission
3. First Fiscal Commission
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following regions Mahalwari System of Revenue Settlement was introduced ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bombay
(C) Madras
(D) North Western Provinces
Ans : (D)

40. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Despite initial victory the Sepoy Mutiny could not succeed in overthrowing the Raj.
Reason (R) : The rising middle class sided with Raj.
Select your correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

41. Which part of India was most affected by the Revolution of 1857 ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Avadh
(D) Madras
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following pairs connected with the Revolution of 1857 is correctly matched ?
Place of Revolt : Leader of Revolt
(A) Kanpur : Rani Lakshmibai
(B) Jhansi : Nana Saheb
(C) Lucknow : Begum Hazrat Mahal
(D) Delhi : Tantiya Tope
Ans : (C)

43. Who among the following is remembered for the annulment of the Partition of Bengal ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Minto
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Chelmsford
Ans : (C)

44. When did Babu Kunwar Singh fight his last battle against the British ?
(A) September 1857
(B) November 1857
(C) February 1858
(D) April 1858
Ans : (D)

45. Kumaran Asan is associated with the social renaissance of—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

46. In which of the following Sessions of the Indian National Congress the ‘drain theory’ was formally accepted ?
(A) Benaras session, 1905
(B) Calcutta session, 1906
(C) Surat session, 1907
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

47. Who among the following was the President of All India Trade Union Congress held at Nagpur ?
(A) Chaman Lal
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Krishna Menon
(D) N. M. Joshi
Ans : (D)

48. During which of the following period the Congress had best of relationship with the Muslim League ?
(A) 1906 – 1916
(B) 1916 – 1922
(C) 1922 – 1928
(D) 1928 – 1934
Ans : (B)

49. Who was the first Indian woman to preside over the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (D)

50. Which of the following American Journalists had criticized the state of women in British India and advanced the logic that so long as cruelties on women continue, the Indian males have no right to take and manage the governance of India in their hands ?
(A) Louis Fischer
(B) Webb Miller
(C) Catherine Mayo
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

51. Consider the following events of Indian National Movement—
1. Gandhi Irwin Pact
2. Poona Pact
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress.
4. Individual Satyagraha
Select the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (A)

52. The book entitled ‘Springing tiger’ is a biography of—
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandrashekhar Azad
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma
Ans : (B)

53. The venue of holding this Second Round Table Conference at London was—
(A) St. James Palace
(B) Kingsley Palace
(C) Buckingham Palace
(D) 10, Downing Street
Ans : (A)

54. Lord Mountbatten as a Viceroy had conversed with following Indian leaders regarding the transfer of power—
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Indicate the correct sequence of their conversation from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (A)

55. All the hymns related to one of the following Gods are in one separate mandala or book of the Rigveda. Who is the God ?
(A) Agni
(B) Varuna
(C) Indra
(D) Soma
Ans : (D)

56. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Lothal
(c) Surkotda
(d) Harappa
List-II
1. Pillared Hall
2. Bones of Horse
3. Cemetery R-37
4. Double Burial
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (C)

57. The Harappan site, where the citadel and the lower town, both are fortified separately is—
(A) Harappa
(B) Mohenjodaro
(C) Kalibanga
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

58. From which country of the Asian Continent was Bogazkui inscription discovered ?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Syria
(D) Turkey
Ans : (D)

59. The Rigvedic Bharatas are associated with—
(A) The Indus Valley
(B) The Saraswati Valley
(C) The Sutlej Valley
(D) The Parushni Valley
Ans : (D)

60. With which of the following vedic sacrifices was the drink of Sura associated ?
(A) Agnistoma
(B) Rajasuya
(C) Sautramani
(D) Vajapeya
Ans : (C)

61. The Abhidhamma treatise Kathavatthu was written by—
(A) Mah-a kassapa
(B) Mahinda
(C) Milinda
(D) Moggaliputta Tissa
Ans : (D)

62. In the Pasupata religion Siva is said to be Lord of Pasu. Which one among the following stands for Pasu ?
(A) Lion
(B) Bull
(C) Parvati
(D) Jiva
Ans : (D)

63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Dhyani Buddhas)
(a) Aksobhya
(b) Vairochana
(c) Ratnasambhava
(d) Amoghasiddhi
List-II (Vehicles)
1. Elephant
2. Snake
3. Horse
4. Garuda
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

64. Which of the following is not a Buddhist Concept ?
(A) Astik-aya
(B) Dharmakaya
(C) Nirmanakaya
(D) Sambhogakaya
Ans : (A)

65. Who of the following is known as a Jain scholar ?
(A) Asvaghose
(B) Hemchandra
(C) Dharmakirti
(D) Diwakaramitra
Ans : (B)

66. How many modes of devotion (Bhakti) are mentioned in Bhagawatism ?
(A) Nine
(B) Ten
(C) Eleven
(D) Eight
Ans : (B)

67. In which of the following periods did ring wells come into prevalence for the first time ?
(A) Mauryan
(B) Sunga
(C) Kushan
(D) Gupta
Ans : (D)

68. Towards which of the following sects did Dasaratha had a leaning ?
(A) Buddhism
(B) Jainism
(C) Ajivakas
(D) Lokayata
Ans : (C)

69. Who among the following classical writers said that Chandragupta Maurya overran the whole of India with an army of six lac soldiers ?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Pliny
(C) Plutarch
(D) Ptolemy
Ans : (C)

70. Who among the following Mauryan rulers was killed by his Commander-in-Chief ?
(A) Dasaratha
(B) Kun-ala
(C) Samprati
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (D)

71. Who of the following was responsible for the collection of taxes at the intermediate level of administration between the district and the village ?
(A) Gopa
(B) Pulisa
(C) Sthanika
(D) Prativedaka
Ans : (A)

72. The Kushans issued coins of—
(A) Gold only
(B) Gold and Silver
(C) Gold and Copper
(D) Gold, Silver and Copper
Ans : (D)

73. The gold coins of Gupta period were called—
1. Dinara
2. Dramma
3. Rupaka
4. Suvarna
Indicate the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4 only
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (C)

74. Who had expressed the view that the cotton cloth worn by Indians had a brighter white colour than any cotton found elsewhere ?
(A) Alexander
(B) Megasthenese
(C) Nearchus
(D) Pliny
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following ports were situated on the eastern coast of South India ?
1. Kaveripatnam
2. Korkai
3. Musiri
4. Tondi
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 4
Ans : (B)

76. The Vallabhi era is identical with—
(A) The Vikrama era
(B) The Gupta era
(C) The Harsha era
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

77. Who among the following Dharmasastra writers disapproved the custom of Sati declaring it as an act of suicide ?
(A) Angiras
(B) Medhatithi
(C) Usana
(D) Visnu
Ans : (B)

78. The rulers of which of the following dynasties were characterized by their metronymics ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Kanva
(D) Satavahana
Ans : (D)

79. According to Manu, a Brahamana was to be awarded higher punishment than the persons of other varnas for the offence of—
(A) The use of abusive language for the persons of other varnas
(B) Murder
(C) Theft
(D) Treason
Ans : (C)

80. In which of the following ancient texts has it been said that the king was the ruler of all except Br-a hamanas ?
(A) Manu-Smriti
(B) Yajnavalkya-Smriti
(C) Vishnu Smriti
(D) Gautama-dharmasutra
Ans : (D)

81. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the social and cultural conditions in the post-Gupta period ?
(A) The number of land-grants increased
(B) The number of castes increased
(C) The Central control increased
(D) The tantric activities increased
Ans : (C)

82. The transformation of the ancient Indian Society into Medieval society was brought about mainly by—
(A) the system of land-grants
(B) the decline in the position of upper caste
(C) the increase in the religious activities
(D) the decrease in surplus food production
Ans : (A)

83. Which of the following towns were seen by Hiuen Tsang as almost deserted ?
1. Kapilvastu
2. Kusinagar
3. Sravasti
4. Tamralipti
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 4
(B) 3, 4
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (D)

84. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the members of the various bodies responsible for Chola local selfgovernment ?
(A) They were elected by voting
(B) They were chosen by lot
(C) They must fulfil certain conditions to become members
(D) No person convicted for theft could become a member
Ans : (A)

85. Which one of the following assemblies protected the interests of traders under the Chola administration ?
(A) Mahasabha
(B) Perunguri
(C) Kuri
(D) Nagaram
Ans : (D)

86. Who among the following authors is known for his satires exposing the evils of contemporary society ?
(A) Ksemendra
(B) Pravarsena
(C) Sriharsa
(D) Visakhadutta
Ans : (A)

87. Which Chola king is credited with the first conquest of Maldives ?
(A) Rajaraja
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Rajadhiraja
(D) Rajendra II
Ans : (A)

88. Which of the following Indian Kings defeated Mohammad Ghori first ?
(A) Prithviraja Chauhan
(B) Jayachandra
(C) Vidyadhara Chandella
(D) Bhima II
Ans : (D)

89. The origin of which of the following ruling families has been described in the bardic literature from Vasisthas sacrificial pit at mountain Abu ?
1. Chahamana
2. Chaulukya
3. Paramara
4. Pratihara
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)

90. The coins with the figure of Laksmi were issued by—
(A) Mohammad Ghori
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

91. The Rajatarangini of Kalhana was composed in—
(A) The eleventh century
(B) The twelfth century
(C) The thirteenth century
(D) The tenth century
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following texts lays down rules for reconversion into Hindu fold of the Hindus forcibly converted into Islam ?
(A) Devala Smriti
(B) Narada Smriti
(C) Visnu Smriti
(D) Yajnavalkya Smriti
Ans : (A)

93. Consider the following statements regarding the history of Kashmir in the tenth century—
1. There were two rival groups in the court.
2. Queen Sugandha was deposed in 914 A.D.
3. Queen Didda did not curb the powers of the feudal land owners.
Indicate the correct statements from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (A)

94. Who among the following dharmasastra writers was a minister of the Gahadvala King Govindachandra ?
(A) Apararka
(B) Chandesvara
(C) Lakshmidhara
(D) Vijnanesvara
Ans : (C)

95. Ibn Batuta was a traveller from—
(A) Africa
(B) Arab
(C) China
(D) Europe
Ans : (A)

96. What was the maximum permissible rate of land revenue collection according to Shariat in early medieval India ?
(A) 20% of the produce
(B) 25% of the produce
(C) 33% of the produce
(D) 50% of the produce
Ans : (D)

97. Who was the commander of Alauddin Khilji’s forces during his Deccan Campaigns ?
(A) Malik Kafur
(B) Ainul Mulk Multani
(C) Nusrat Khan
(D) Ulugh Khan
Ans : (A)

98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I
(a) Zia-uddin Barni
(b) Ibn Batuta
(c) Abul Fazal
(d) Nizamuddin Ahmad
List-II
1. Tabqat-i-Akbari
2. Akbarnama
3. Tarikh-i-Firozshahi
4. Rehla
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (C)

99. Which of the Sultans of Delhi abolished the ‘Zakat’ on grain ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (D)

100. Which Delhi Sultan levied the irrigation tax on the farmers for the first time ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

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Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre) Exam : Law Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2007
(Held on 14-6-2009)
Law : Solved Paper

1. Point out wrong answer—
An order maintenance may be passed under section 125 of Cr. P. C. where a person neglects or refuses to maintain—
(A) his wife even if living separately by mutual consent
(B) his legitimate or illegitimate minor child
(C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by reason of any physical or mental abnormality or injury, unable to maintain itself
(D) his father or mother
Ans : (A)

2. An order of discharge—
(A) is not a judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better evidence
(C) takes place after formal framing of charges
(D) establishes innocence of accused
Ans : (A)

3. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that every person arrested without warrant shall be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence. What is the effect of non-compliance of these provisions ?
(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall enable the person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain his release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very material
Ans : (C)


4. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. P. C., after the words ‘Public Prosecutor’, the words inserted are—
(A) One or more additional public prosecutors
(B) Two or more additional public prosecutors
(C) At least five additional public prosecutors
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. The offences which can be compounded are provided under—
(A) Schedule first of Cr. P. C.
(B) Schedule second of Cr. P. C.
(C) Section 320 of Cr. P. C.
(D) Section 321 of Cr. P. C.
Ans : (C)

6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance, accused has no right to produce any material ?
(A) Anil Royal v. State of Bihar
(B) State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi
(C) Bani Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(D) Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand
Ans : (B)

7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is provided ?
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238 to 250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
Ans : (D)

8. Investigation includes all the proceedings conducted by a police officer—
(A) For the collection of evidence
(B) For enquiry than a trial
(C) For trial
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

9. “If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in certain circumstances.”
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A) When the charge has been framed
(B) When the offence is compoundable
(C) When the offence is noncognizable
(D) When the proceeding has been instituted on complaint
Ans : (A)

10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued simultaneously and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was also issued. What is the legality of these orders ?
(A) All the orders are perfectly legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential order of attachment
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(A) Section 188
(B) Section 183
(C) Section 182
(D) Section 186
Ans : (A)

12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case diary ? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it ?
(A) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh
(B) Madhu Limaye v. Union of India
(C) Mukund Lal v. Union of India
(D) J. M. Desai v. State of Bombay
Ans : (C)

13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals ?
(A) Section 409
(B) Section 408
(C) Section 407
(D) Section 406
Ans : (B)

14. Consider the following statements—
1. Illegal arrest does not vitiate the trial.
2. A confession is not invalidated by the illegal arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the precincts of a police station amounts to arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken words.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Ans : (C)

15. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
(B) At any place within the state
(C) At any place in India
(D) Within the jurisdiction of District court
Ans : (C)

16. “Summons case” means a case relating to an offence, punishable with—
(A) Imprisonment for life
(B) Imprisonment for a term of 10 years
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(D) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
Ans : (D)

17. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C. ?
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) The Home Minister of the State
Ans : (A)

18. In a cognizable offence a police officer—
(A) cannot arrest an accused without warrant
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a magistrate
(D) may arrest an accused without warrant
Ans : (D)

19. The objective of the Police Act 1949 is—
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the prevention and detection of crime
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of police force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more Union Territories and for the establishment of a police force therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans : (C)

20. Police Diary is—
(A) Case Diary
(B) General Diary
(C) General Register
(D) Any of the above
Ans : (A)

21. For patrolling of roads ordinarily—
(A) Civil police shall be employed
(B) Armed police shall be employed
(C) Mounted police shall be employed
(D) Village Chaukidar shall be employed
Ans : (A)

22. The Public Prosecutor should inspect the Malkhana once is—
(A) A month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) A fortnight
Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) The police may control and regulate the processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from the Police Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or procession
Ans : (C)

24. Special police officers may be appointed under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police Act, 1861 by—
(A) Inspector General of Police
(B) Any Magistrate suo motu
(C) Magistrate on application of Police Inspector
(D) Senior Superintendent of Police
Ans : (C)

25. Village Chaukidars are appointed by—
(A) Gram Pradhan
(B) In charge of the Police Station
(C) Superintendent of Police
(D) District Magistrate
Ans : (D)

26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or lays down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes inconvenience or annoyance to public ?
(A) Yes, even without warrant
(B) Yes, only under a warrant of arrest
(C) No, because it is not an offence
(D) No, because the police officer is not empowered
Ans : (A)

27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in the ‘gang register’ of a police station of the district ?
(A) Gang of Dacoits
(B) Gang of cattle thieves
(C) Gang to burglars
(D) Gang of railway goods wagon thieves
Ans : (B)

28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing any statement made to him in the course of examination under section 161 of the code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only when directed by the court to do so
(D) Only in cases of cognizable offences
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A) Details contained in a First Information Report
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and from duty
(C) Receipt and disbursement of cash
(D) Arrests made at the police station
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following is not a duty of the police officer ?
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent authority
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence affecting the public peace
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and public nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the circumstances demand
Ans : (D)

31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be discontinued with the sanction of—
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(D) Inspector General of Police
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A) Main Castes and Tribals
(B) Specialities of the Population
(C) Entries of offences against the State
(D) The village choukidar
Ans : (C)

33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by the police for more than—
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Six weeks
(D) Fifteen days
Ans : (C)

34. ‘In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the language of the Statute.’
This view was expressed in—
(A) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(B) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(C) Queen Vs. Tolson
(D) R. Vs. Arnold
Ans : (A)

35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder ?
(A) No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
(B) Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

36. Who among the following is not a public servant ?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
(C) Surveyor of an Insurance Company
(D) Employee of a ‘Nationalized Bank’
Ans : (C)

37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Kehar Singh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nawab Ali Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Vishwanath Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor
List-II
1. Right of private defence
2. Criminal Conspiracy
3. Common Intention
4. Common Object
5. Mistake of fact
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 5 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 5 3
Ans : (A)

38. ‘A’ makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so opening the box, that there was no jewel in it. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Attempt to theft
(B) Theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

39. ‘A’ sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but forged marks-sheet was detected before the commencement of examination—
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of cheating
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of attempt to cheat
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of cheating
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if the act was committed under the influence of his mental disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and extent as renders the accused practically an automation
(C) Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse for knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the act is done under the fear of instant death
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression ‘common intention’ under section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons constituting the group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans : (B)

42. In which of the following cases ‘necessity’ under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be pleaded as a defence ?
(A) Self-defence and prevention of violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C) Self-preservation is an absolute necessity
(D) Choice of evils affecting person other than the accused
Ans : (C)

43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ is incorporated ?
(A) Section 78
(B) Section 76
(C) Section 79
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

44. ‘A’, a child of exact seven years of age commits an offence. ‘A’ will—
(A) not be guilty under section 82 of Indian Penal Code
(B) be guilty if he is of sufficient maturity
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code
(D) be guilty under section 83 of Indian Penal Code
Ans : (C)

45. ‘A’ holds ‘Z’ down, and fraudulently takes Z’s money and jewels from ‘Z’s clothes, without ‘Z’s consent. ‘A’ is guilty of committing—
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
Ans : (C)

46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by the Supreme Court in—
(A) State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George
(B) Guru Deo Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Ram Kumar v. State of Haryana
(D) Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab
Ans : (D)

47. Which of the following is not necessary to constitute abetment by conspiracy ?
(A) A conspiracy between two or more persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take place in order to do the thing conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it
Ans : (D)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
(b) State Vs. Nalini
(c) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(d) State of Maharashtra Vs. Sukh Deo Singh
List-II
1. General A.S. Vaidya case
2. Mathura rape case
3. Post-master murder case
4. Rajeev Gandhi murder case
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans : (A)

49. If in a trial for ‘causing death by negligence’ it is established that the accused had been at fault though victim had also been equally at fault—
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought about by carelessness or contribution of the victim also, will be no defence
(B) Contributory negligence would be a good defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

50. Which one of the following is punishable as sedition ?
(A) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow it
(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority
(C) A publicist attack on the policies of the government
(D) An attempt to remove the Ministers from power
Ans : (B)

51. ‘A’, for the purpose of inducing ‘B’ to desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to burn ‘B’s house. What offence was committed by ‘A’ in this case ?
(A) Abetment
(B) Criminal assault
(C) Criminal force
(D) Criminal intimidation
Ans : (D)

52. ‘A’, with the intention of murdering ‘Z’, instigates ‘B’, a child below seven years at age, to do an act which causes ‘Z’s death. ‘B’, in consequence of instigation, did the act in the absence of ‘A’, thereby causes ‘Z’s death. What offence has been committed by ‘A’ ?
(A) No offence, because ‘A’ was not present at the time of murder
(B) Committed simple offence of causing hurt
(C) Committed offence of attempt to murder
(D) Committed murder
Ans : (D)

53. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497 of Indian Penal Code (Adultery) in—
(A) Smt. Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India
(B) K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Priya Bala Ghosh Vs. Suresh Chandra Ghosh
(D) Sukhbeer Singh Vs. State of Haryana
Ans : (A)

54. Point out correct response—
In theft there must be—
(A) Dishonest intention to take any kind of property
(B) Dishonest intention to take any valuable security
(C) Dishonest intention to take any movable property
(D) Dishonest intention to take only immovable property
Ans : (C)

55. Which of the following is not an illustration of assault ?
(A) ‘A’ takes up a stick saying to ‘B’, “I will beat you”
(B) ‘A’ threatens ‘B’ to see him later on
(C) ‘A’ medically examines a woman ‘B’ without her consent
(D) ‘A’ throws brickbats into the house of ‘B’
Ans : (B)

56. ‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells ‘Z’ that they will fire at ‘Z’ if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building—
(A) ‘A’ wrongfully restrains ‘Z’
(B) ‘A’ wrongfully obstructs ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ wrongfully confines ‘Z’
(D) ‘A’ wrongfully orders ‘Z’
Ans : (C)

57. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt ?
(A) ‘A’ tries to kill ‘B’ by witchcraft
(B) ‘A’ administers a poisonous drug to a woman ‘B’ with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the woman was not pregnant
(C) ‘A’ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) ‘A’ goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans : (B)

58. ‘A’ has knocked down four teeth of ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of—
(A) Attempt to cause hurt
(B) Causing hurt
(C) Causing grievous hurt
(D) Attempt to murder
Ans : (C)

59. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Preparation to commit murder
(B) Preparation to commit dacoity
(C) Preparation to wage war against the state
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Ans : (A)

60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her father’s house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied ‘Z’ to various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount as ‘Z’ had no money. During the course of their journey ‘Z’ had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her consent. Here ‘Z’ is liable under section—
(A) 363 of Indian Penal Code
(B) 366 of Indian Penal Code
(C) 366-A of Indian Penal Code
(D) 376 of Indian Penal Code
Ans : (D)

61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
Select the correct answer with the help of codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Act of Judge when acting judicially
(b) Accident in doing a lawful act
(c) Act of a child under seven years of age
(d) Act of a person of unsound mind
List-II
1. Section 82 of I.P.C.
2. Section 84 of I.P.C.
3. Section 77 of I.P.C.
4. Section 80 of I.P.C.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)

63. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agreed to commit murder of ‘Z’ by poisoning and ‘Y’ was to procure poison, but he did not procure it. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are guilty of—
(A) Abetment of murder by conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of Indian Penal Code
(C) No offence
(D) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal Code is available even against an act which is not offence under the code
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate
(C) The right of private defence is available to defend only one’s own person and property
(D) The right of private defence extends to the causing of death when the assault is made with the intention of wrongfully confining a person
Ans : (D)

65. ‘A’ shakes his fist at ‘Z’, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause ‘Z’ to believe that ‘A’ is about to strike ‘Z’.
‘A’ has committed—
(A) Use of force
(B) Use of criminal force
(C) Assault
(D) Use of force and assault both
Ans : (C)

66. ‘A’ sent through the post office, a packet containing seditious publications, with a covering letter requesting the addressee to circulate it to others. It was intercepted and never reached the addressee. ‘A’—
(A) Committed the offence of sedition
(B) Did not commit any offence
(C) Is guilty of inciting communal riot
(D) Is guilty of an attempt to commit sedition
Ans : (D)

67. Which one of the following is an inchoate-crime ?
(A) Riot
(B) Criminal attempt
(C) Unlawful assembly
(D) Public nuisance
Ans : (B)

68. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under—
(A) Section 350 I.P.C.
(B) Section 351 I.P.C.
(C) Section 353 I.P.C.
(D) Section 354 I.P.C.
Ans : (D)

69. Which of the following would not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Evidence of the existence of a motive for the crime charged
(B) Evidence of a statement which accompanies some conduct
(C) Evidence of a statement which influences and affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is otherwise relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery without making any complaint
Ans : (D)

70. In a case where a doctor commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment and the woman says that she did not consent, the court—
(A) will need proof
(B) shall presume that she did not consent
(C) may need corroboration
(D) may presume or may not presume her consent
Ans : (B)

71. Which one of the following is a judgement-in-personam ?
(A) A final judgement in a suit for divorce
(B) A final judgement in a suit for restitution of conjugal rights
(C) A final judgement in a suit for insolvency
(D) A final judgement in a suit for admiralty matters
Ans : (B)

72. Which of the following is not correct for relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy ?
(A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have entered into a conspiracy
(B) The act in question must have been done after the time when the intention to conspire was first entertained by any of them
(C) The act must have been done in reference to their common intention
(D) It can also be used in favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that such a person was not a party to the conspiracy
Ans : (D)

73. Who amongst the following is not an accomplice ?
(A) A bribe giver
(B) A detective
(C) A prostitute
(D) A person receiving stolen property
Ans : (B)

74. The English doctrine of Res Gestae—
(A) has no place in India
(B) has place in India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans : (C)

75. Assertion (A) : An admission can be used against a co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as well.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding ‘admission‘ under section 17 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Admission operates as waiver of proof
(B) Admission is a statement
which is necessarily against one’s own interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an admission is made
Ans : (D)

77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Section 46 of Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 47 of Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 47A of Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 48 of Indian Evidence Act
List-II
1. Opinion as to digital signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom, when relevant
3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
4. Opinion as to handwriting when relevant
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)

78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be proved on his behalf ?
(A) When it is relevant as dying declaration
(B) When it is relevant as admission
(C) When it is relevant as confession
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content of electronic record
Ans : (A)

79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has been made freely and voluntarily.
Reason (R) : A confession is inadmissible against a coaccused.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself—
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of information received
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (C)

81. Admissions are—
(A) Conclusive proof
(B) Not Conclusive proof
(C) Not estoppel
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (B)

82. What is the evidentiary value of the confession of a co-accused implicating himself as well as his other non-confessing coaccused ?
(A) Such a confession is relevant against all the co-accused
(B) It shall not be relevant against non-confessing coaccused
(C) Such a confession amounts to proof of guilt of all the coaccused
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the main offence, his confession shall cease to be admissible
Ans : (A)

83. Relevancy and admissibility under Indian Evidence Act are—
(A) Synonymous
(B) Neither synonymous nor coextensive
(C) Co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive both
Ans : (B)

84. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act defines ‘Leading Question’ ?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 141
(C) Section 142
(D) Section 143
Ans : (B)

85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 124
(D) Section 45
Ans : (B)

86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a part of documentary Evidence ?
(A) 2001
(B) 2002
(C) 2000
(D) 1999
Ans : (C)

87. Which of the following is not a public document ?
(A) Records of a nationalized Bank
(B) A post-mortem report
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans : (B)

88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the medical certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state of mind at the crucial moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the statement could not be relied upon ?
(A) Ravi Chander Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Shripatrao Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Uka Ram Vs. State of Rajasthan
(D) Baldev Raj Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (A)

89. The principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root—
(A) As an exception to the doctrine of consideration
(B) As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract
(C) As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped from denying a title of the landlord to that property ?
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 116
(C) Section 117
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

91. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy v. Emperor relates to—
(A) Res gestae
(B) Dying declaration
(C) Accomplice
(D) Co-accused
Ans : (B)

92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption under section 113 B of the Evidence Act is—
(A) Automatically refuted
(B) Not refuted
(C) Not relevant
(D) Irrelevant and otiose
Ans : (B)

93. Assertion (A) : ‘B’ writes to his wife ‘C’ a letter, which contains defamatory matters about ‘D’. ‘C’ cannot be compelled to disclose this communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a husband to his wife or vice-versa is protected as privileged communication.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

94. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on bail—
(A) Can be set aside or modified only by the Supreme Court
(B) Cannot be modified by any court
(C) Can be modified by Sessions Court or High Court
(D) Can be set aside only by Sessions Court
Ans : (C)

95. During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the alleged victim may be done—
(A) Only on the order of a Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such consent on her behalf
Ans : (D)

96. The main characteristic of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is—
(A) The separation of the judiciary from the executive
(B) The separation of the legislature from the executive
(C) The separation of the revenue work from the executive
(D) To provide judicial powers to the executive magistrates
Ans : (A)

97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish a prima-facie case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor
Ans : (D)

98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour from habitual offenders ?
(A) Section 109
(B) Section 110
(C) Section 111
(D) Section 112
Ans : (B)

99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession under section 164 Cr. P. C. ?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against him
(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans : (C)

100. Which one of the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail ?
(A) D. K. Ganesh Babu Vs. P. T. Manokaran
(B) Tama Vs. State of West Bengal
(C) Dinesh Dalmia Vs. C. B. I.
(D) Dimple Gupta Vs. Rajiv Gupta
Ans : (A)

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Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (APO) Exam : GK Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2007
(Held on 14-6-2009)
General Knowledge : Solved Paper

1. The most dominant item of agroimports of India is—
(A) Pulses
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Cashew nuts
(D) Edible oils
Ans : (D)

2. Who among the following benefits most from inflation ?
(A) Creditors
(B) Debtors
(C) Savings Bank Account Holders
(D) Government Pensioners
Ans : (B)

3. Mixed economy means a system—
(A) Where agriculture and industry are given equal importance
(B) Where public sector exists along with the Private Sector in national economy
(C) Where globalization is tampered by a heavy dose of swadeshi in national economy
(D) Where the Centre and States are equal partners in economic planning and development
Ans : (B)


4. The Tornadoes are very strong tropical cyclones originating in—
(A) Carribean sea
(B) China sea
(C) Arabian sea
(D) Black sea
Ans : (A)

5. The highest salinity is found in—
(A) Black sea
(B) China sea
(C) Dead sea
(D) Mediterranean sea
Ans : (C)

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists—
List-I (Foodgrains)
(a) Barley
(b) Groundnuts
(c) Rice
(d) Soyabean
List-II (Leading Producer)
1. China
2. India
3. Russia
4. U.S.A.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)

7. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (R) : India is a monsoon country.
Reason (R) : The high Himalayas impart it climatic distinctiveness. Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans : (A)

8. The most important mineralized rock system of India—
(A) Cuddapa System
(B) Dharwar System
(C) Gondwana System
(D) Vindhyan System
Ans : (C)

9. The oldest mountain system of India is—
(A) Aravallis
(B) Himalayas
(C) Sahyadris
(D) Vindhayas
Ans : (A)

10. The correct descending order of the following states in terms of density of population (2001) is—
(A) Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(B) Bihar, Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar
Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following countries is most urbanised ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)

12. The electron was discovered by—
(A) Thomson
(B) Millikan
(C) Rutherford
(D) Faraday
Ans : (A)

13. In human body Vitamin A is stored in—
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Stomach
Ans : (A)

14. Which compound of silver is mainly used in photography ?
(A) Silver nitrate
(B) Silver chloride
(C) Silver bromide
(D) Silver iodide
Ans : (A)

15. Diamond and Graphite are an allotrope of—
(A) Carbon
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Tin
Ans : (A)

16. Which planet appears red ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

17. Mirage is an example of—
(A) Refraction
(B) Total internal reflection
(C) Dispersion
(D) Diffraction
Ans : (B)

18. Which one is related to the diagnosis of heart ?
(A) B C G
(B) E C G
(C) E E G
(D) E M U
Ans : (B)

19. The computer hardware which is made of Silica can store plenty of data. It is called—
(A) Disk
(B) Chip
(C) Magnetic tape
(D) File
Ans : (B)

20. In the 54th National Film Award ceremony held in June 2008 the Best Actor Award was given to—
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Saumitra Chatterjee
(C) Saif Ali Khan
(D) Hritik Roshan
Ans : (B)

21. In Beijing Olympics Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in—
(A) 10-metres rifle shooting
(B) 50-metres rifle shooting
(C) Skeet shooting
(D) Trap shooting
Ans : (A)

22. The winner of Santosh Trophy, 2008 was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Punjab
(C) Services
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

23. The 34th G-8 summit was held in July 2008 in—
(A) Okinawa
(B) Paris
(C) Tokyo
(D) Toyako
Ans : (D)

24. Which state is the leading producer of marine fish ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

25. In which district of Rajasthan the army staged in March 2008 ‘Operation Brazen Chariots’, its biggest battle exercise to date ?
(A) Barmer
(B) Bikaner
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Jodhpur
Ans : (C)

26. The two new members of NATO from 2009 will be—
(A) Albania and Croatia
(B) Austria and Greece
(C) Bulgaria and Turkey
(D) Romania and Poland
Ans : (A)

27. Dada Saheb Falke Award-2007 was awarded to—
(A) B. R. Chopra
(B) Mrinal Sen
(C) Shyam Benegal
(D) Tapan Sinha
Ans : (D)

28. The recipient of Bharat Ratna-2008 is—
(A) Bhimsen Joshi
(B) Bismillah Khan
(C) Pt. Ravi Shankar
(D) Amartya Sen
Ans : (A)

29. The country’s first Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine is going to be set up in—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(C) Bangalore
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (C)

30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists—
List-I (Buddhist Centres of Pilgrimage)
(a) Gaya
(b) Kushinagar
(c) Lumbini
(d) Sarnath
List-II (Events in the Life of Gautam Buddha)
1. Birth
2. Enlightenment
3. First Sermon
4. Nirvana
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is a rockcut temple ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneswar
(C) Kandaria Mahadev Temple, Khajuraho
(D) Kailasa Temple, Ellora
Ans : (D)

32. Who among the following were the saints of Varkari sect ?
1. Jnanesvara
2. Namadeva
3. Eknatha
4. Tukaram
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

33. The biggest port under the Mughals was—
(A) Masulipattam
(B) Surat
(C) Dacca
(D) Hugli
Ans : (B)

34. Jantar Mantar, an astronomical observatory was constructed in Delhi by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Surajmal of Bharatpur
(D) Jaisingh II of Jaipur
Ans : (D)

35. Arrange the visits of the following foreign travellers in India in chronological order—
1. Ibn Batuta
2. Marcopolo
3. Vasco-de-Gama
4. William Hawkins
Select your answer using the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2
Ans : (B)

36. The Queen’s Proclamation for better government of India was announced in 1858 by Lord Canning at a darbar held at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Calcutta
(C) Delhi
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following leaders took active part in British Parliamentary debates against ‘economic drain’ of India’s wealth ?
(A) Pherozeshah Mehta
(B) R. C. Dutta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma
Ans : (C)

38. ‘Vande Mataram’ became the theme song of India’s struggle for independence during—
(A) Swadeshi Movement
(B) Champaran Movement
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement
(D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans : (A)

39. Madam Blavatsky was associated with—
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Arya Samaj
(C) Theosophical Society
(D) Servants of India Society
Ans : (C)

40. Sarada Act was passed for—
(A) Intercaste marriage
(B) Widow marriage
(C) Prevention of child marriage
(D) Prevention of female infanticide
Ans : (C)

41. Who edited the Maratha and Kesari Newspapers ?
(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(B) Atmaram Pandurang
(C) Lok Manya Tilak
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Ans : (C)

42. Consider the following events connected with the Indian National Movement—
1. Start of Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
4. Amritsar Session of Indian National Congress
Select their correct chronological order using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans : (A)

43. Given below is a list of places. Name the places where parallel governments were established during Quit India Movement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below the list—
1. Ballia
2. Meerut
3. Satara
4. Telangana
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 3
Ans : (D)

44. On whose recommendation was constituent assembly formed ?
(A) Government of India Act 1935
(B) Cripps’ Mission
(C) Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) Mountbatten Plan
Ans : (C)

45. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by—
(A) Durand Line
(B) McMohan Line
(C) Maginot Line
(D) Radcliffe Line
Ans : (D)

46. The time gap between two successive sessions of Parliament is not be exceed—
(A) Four months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) What is specified by the President
Ans : (B)

47. Who among the following can participate in the meeting of Parliament without being its member ?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(B) Chief Election Commissioner
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (C)

48. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Home Minister
Ans : (B)

49. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of the Planning Commission
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (A)

50. The largest component of India’s foreign exchange resources is—
(A) Savings out of export earnings
(B) Deposits of NRI
(C) Grants given by IMF and World Bank
(D) Portfolio investment in stock market
Ans : (A)

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RAS/RTS (Pre) Exam : Public Administration (Solved)

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-1-2009)

1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)

2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)


4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)

6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)

7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)

8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)

9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)

10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)

11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)

12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)

13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)

14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)

15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)

16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)

19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)

21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)

22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)

23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)

24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)

25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)

26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)

27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)

28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)

29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)

30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)

33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)

34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)

35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)

36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)

39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)

40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)

41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)

43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)

46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)

47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)

48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)

49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)

50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)

51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)

54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)

57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)

59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)

60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)

61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)

62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)

64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)

68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)

69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)

71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)

72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)

73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)

74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)

76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)

79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)

81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)

82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)

83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)

84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)

85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)

87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)

88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)

89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)

92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)

93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)

94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)

95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)

96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)

97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)

98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)

99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)

100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)

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SSC Tax Assistant Exam : General Awareness (Fully Solved)

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Exam., 2008
(Held on 14-12-2008)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. The strongest force in nature is—
(A) Electrical force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Nuclear force
(D) Magnetic force
Ans : (C)

2. According to the theory of relativity, which of the following always remains constant ?
(A) Length of an object
(B) Time
(C) Space
(D) Velocity of light
Ans : (D)

3. The spoon dropped by an astronaut in a satellite will—
(A) Fall to the floor
(B) Remain stationary
(C) Continue to follow the motion of the satellite
(D) Move tangentially away
Ans : (C)


4. A colour-blind person cannot—
(A) See distant objects
(B) See black colour
(C) Distinguish between certain colours
(D) Have persistence of vision
Ans : (C)

5. An ECG shows the functioning of the—
(A) Brain
(B) Heart
(C) Lungs
(D) Kidneys
Ans : (B)

6. Pipelines in cold countries often burst in winter, because—
(A) Water freezes and expands in its volume
(B) Temperature of ice is less than that of water
(C) Pipelines contract in their volume
(D) Pipelines expand due to freezing
Ans : (A)

7. When a body is taken from earth to moon—
(A) Mass changes but weight remains same
(B) Weight changes but mass remains same
(C) Both weight and mass change
(D) Both weight and mass remain same
Ans : (B)

8. A mirage occurs because of—
(A) Reflection by hot ground
(B) Total internal reflection by layers of air
(C) Interference of light
(D) Diffraction of light
Ans : (B)

9. Atomic power plant works on the principle of—
(A) Fission
(B) Fusion
(C) Thermal combustion
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
Ans : (A)

10. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (B)

11. Zinc sulphate is commonly used as—
(A) Fungicide
(B) Herbicide
(C) Rodenticide
(D) Deodorant
Ans : (A)

12. The purest form of water is—
(A) Tap water
(B) Rainwater
(C) Groundwater
(D) Distilled water
Ans : (B)

13. The main constituent of biogas is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Methane
(C) Acetic acid
(D) Methyl alcohol
Ans : (B)

14. Aspirin is chemically known as—
(A) Methyl salicylate
(B) Hydroxysalicylate
(C) Acetylsalicylic acid
(D) Alkylsalicylic acid
Ans : (C)

15. The most abundant element in the human body is—
(A) Carbon
(B) Iron
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitric oxide
(D) Chlorofluorocarbon
Ans : (A)

17. Wax used for making candle is chemically a mixture of—
(A) Aliphatic hydrocarbons
(B) Aromatic hydrocarbons
(C) Cyclic hydrocarbons
(D) Aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbons
Ans : (D)

18. Litmus is obtained from—
(A) A bacterium
(B) A fungus
(C) An alga
(D) Lichen
Ans : (D)

19. Vinegar made by fermentation from cane sugar contains—
(A) Palmitic acid
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Acetic acid
Ans : (D)

20. Photooxidation process is initiated by—
(A) Light
(B) Heat
(C) Oxygen
(D) Catalyst
Ans : (A)

21. The lower layer of atmosphere is called—
(A) Exosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Mesosphere
Ans : (B)

22. Intergral Coach Factory is located at—
(A) Chittaranjan (WB)
(B) Varanasi (UP)
(C) Jamshedpur (Jharkhand)
(D) Perambur (TN)
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following States is a member of the ‘Seven Sisters’ ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Tripura
(C) Orissa
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

24. Which one of the following is used in large quantities in Cement Industry ?
(A) Gypsum
(B) Limestone
(C) Coal
(D) Clay
Ans : (B)

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List-I (Country)
(a) Australia
(b) China
(c) France
(d) West Indies
List-II (Local Wind)
1. Hurricane
2. Willy-willy
3. Typhoon
4. Mistral
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

26. Which State possesses biggest coal reserve ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Orissa
Ans : (B)

27. Ultraviolet radiation striking the earth is due to the depletion of—
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ozone
(D) Oxygen
Ans : (C)

28. The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is called—
(A) Konkan
(B) Coromandel
(C) East Coast
(D) Malabar Coast
Ans : (B)

29. The highest Indian waterfall is—
(A) Gokak
(B) Gersoppa
(C) Shivasamudram
(D) Yenna
Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following does not cause soil erosion ?
(A) Deflation
(B) Deforestation
(C) Weathering
(D) Overcropping
Ans : (C)

31. Production function expresses—
(A) Technological relationship between physical inputs and output
(B) Financial relationship between physical inputs and output
(C) Relationship between finance and technology
(D) Relationship between factors of production
Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the population of a developed country ?
(A) Low birthrate and low death rate
(B) High birthrate and high death rate
(C) High proportion of urban population
(D) Low growth rate of population
Ans : (B)

33. Which Plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the first time ?
(A) Fourth
(B) Fifth
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
Ans : (C)

34. EXIM Policy, 2002-07 has set a target to achieve a share in the global trade by 2007 at—
(A) 0•5%
(B) 1•0%
(C) 1•5%
(D) 2•0%
Ans : (B)

35. GDP at Factor Cost is—
(A) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies
(B) GNP minus depreciation allowances
(C) NNP plus depreciation allowances
(D) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes
Ans : (A)

36. “Interest is a reward for parting with liquidity” is according to—
(A) Keynes
(B) Marshall
(C) Haberler
(D) Ohlin
Ans : (A)

37. Extension or contraction of quantity demanded of a commodity is a result of a change in the—
(A) Unit price of the commodity
(B) Income of the consumer
(C) Tastes of the consumer
(D) Climate of the region
Ans : (A)

38. Cross elasticity of demand between petrol and car is—
(A) Infinite
(B) Positive
(C) Zero
(D) Negative
Ans : (D)

39. The period of the Eleventh Five-Year Plan is—
(A) 2005 to 2010
(B) 2006 to 2011
(C) 2007 to 2012
(D) 2008 to 2013
Ans : (C)

40. For price discrimination to be successful, the elasticity of demand for the product in the two markets should be—
(A) Same
(B) Different
(C) Constant
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)

41. FERA in India has been replaced by—
(A) FEPA
(B) FEMA
(C) FENA
(D) FETA
Ans : (B)

42. Finance Commission is constituted—
(A) Every year
(B) Once in four years
(C) Once in two years
(D) Once in five years
Ans : (D)

43. National Income Estimates in India are prepared by—
(A) Central Statistical Organisation
(B) National Development Council
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (A)

44. The term ‘Mixed Economy’ denotes—
(A) Existence of both rural and urban sectors
(B) Existence of both private and public sectors
(C) Existence of both heavy and small industries
(D) Existence of both developed and underdeveloped sectors
Ans : (B)

45. The Law of Demand expresses—
(A) Effect of change in price of a commodity on its demand
(B) Effect of change in demand of a commodity on its price
(C) Effect of change in demand of a commodity over the supply of its substitute
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

46. When did the British make English the medium of instruction in India ?
(A) 1813
(B) 1833
(C) 1835
(D) 1844
Ans : (C)

47. During whose Viceroyship did the High Courts come into existence at the three presidential cities of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay ?
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Algin
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans : (C)

48. Who was popularly known as ‘Nana Saheb’ ?
(A) Baji Rao I
(B) Balaji Baji Rao
(C) Balaji Vishwanath
(D) Madhav Rao
Ans : (B)

49. In which session of the Indian National Congress did the historic union of Congress and Muslim League take place ?
(A) Surat
(B) Bombay
(C) Calcutta
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

50. Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of—
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(C) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(D) Balban
Ans : (C)

51. Who attended the Imperial Durbar of 1877 dressed in handspun Khadi ?
(A) M. K. Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) G. V. Joshi
Ans : (D)

52. Who was the founder-editor of the famous newspaper ‘Kesari’ during the National Struggle ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Ans : (C)

53. Who among the following Bahmani rulers built the famous Gol Gumbaj at Bijapur ?
(A) Muhammad Adil Shah
(B) Mahmud Gawan
(C) Yusuf Adil Shah
(D) Ismail Adil Shah
Ans : (A)

54. Who started the Saka Era and when ?
(A) Kadphises in 58 BC
(B) Rudradaman I in AD 78
(C) Vikramaditya in 58 BC
(D) Kanishka in AD 78
Ans : (D)

55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) M. A. Jinnah
(c) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(d) V. D. Savarkar
List-II
1. Muslim League
2. Indian National Congress
3. Hindu Mahasabha
4. Liberal Party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (A)

56. The Council of Ministers does not include—
(A) Cabinet Ministers
(B) Ministers of State
(C) Cabinet Secretary
(D) Ministers without Portfolio
Ans : (C)

57. Vegetables are easily perishable because of their high content of—
(A) Sugars
(B) Water
(C) Vitamins
(D) Enzymes
Ans : (B)

58. Anaemia occurs due to the deficiency of—
(A) Riboflavin
(B) Thiamine
(C) Folic Acid
(D) Niacin
Ans : (C)

59. For a healthy heart, one needs to take a balanced diet, adequate sleep and—
(A) Indulge in vigorous mental activities
(B) Play games like carrom, chess and cards
(C) Do right amount of physical exercise
(D) Do sedentary work
Ans : (C)

60. AIDS is a/an—
(A) Bacterial disease
(B) Viral disease
(C) Fungal disease
(D) Algal disease
Ans : (B)

61. Amoebic dysentery is caused by—
(A) Entamoeba histolytica
(B) Salmonella typhi
(C) E. coli
(D) Streptococcus pyogenes
Ans : (A)

62. Why is it difficult to breathe at higher altitudes?
(A) Due to low air pressure
(B) Due to low temperature
(C) Due to ozone
(D) Due to high humidity
Ans : (A)

63. The amount of chlorine available in water after disinfection is called as—
(A) Free chlorine
(B) Residual chlorine
(C) Free available chlorine
(D) Combined available chlorine
Ans : (B)

64. What are the major pollutants of cigarette smoke ?
(A) Carbon monoxide and dioxin
(B) Carbon monoxide and nicotine
(C) Carbon monoxide and benzene
(D) Dioxin and benzene
Ans : (C)

65. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the Security Council of the UNO ?
(A) China
(B) France
(C) Japan
(D) UK
Ans : (C)

66. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government ?
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) Cuba
(D) Belgium
Ans : (B)

67. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) 395
(B) 396
(C) 398
(D) 399
Ans : (A)

68. Although Union List, State List and Concurrent List cover the entire legislative business, yet there may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who will legislate on that item ?
(A) Parliament only
(B) State Legislature only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans : (A)

69. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that—
(A) It is the Union Legislature in India
(B) It also comprises of the President
(C) It is bicameral in nature
(D) The Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved
Ans : (D)

70. The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of—
(A) Gram Sabha, Anchal Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti
(B) Janapad Panchayat, Taluka Panchayat, Anchal Panchayat
(C) Gram Panchayat, Block and Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
(D) Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
Ans : (D)

71. A Financial Emergency can be declared by applying—
(A) Article 360
(B) Article 361
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 371
Ans : (A)

72. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(A) Once
(B) 2 times
(C) 3 times
(D) Any number of times
Ans : (D)

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) MP
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
(d) Speaker
List-II
1. Elected by an Electoral College
2. Elected by the Parliament
3. Elected by the Lok Sabha
4. Elected by adult voting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (D)

74. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Chief of Air Staff
(D) Chief of Army
Ans : (A)

75. What is the name given to the common currency of the European Union ?
(A) Rupee
(B) Euro
(C) Rouble
(D) Franc
Ans : (B)

76. The first astronaut to walk in outer space is—
(A) Aleksei Leonov
(B) Yuri Gagarin
(C) Neil Armstrong
(D) Dave Scott
Ans : (A)

77. What is the full form of NATO ?
(A) North African Treaty Organisation
(B) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(C) North Asian Treaty Organisation
(D) North American Treaty Organisation
Ans : (B)

78. Who wrote the recent best-selling book The Road Ahead ?
(A) Bill Clinton
(B) I. K. Gujral
(C) Bill Gates
(D) T. N. Seshan
Ans : (C)

79. Who translated the novel Nil Darpan in English ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Dinabandhu Mitra
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Ans : (B)

80. The missile Agni II of India is a—
(A) Nuclear missile
(B) Surface-to-air missile
(C) Surface-to-surface missile
(D) Surface-to-sea missile
Ans : (C)

81. Who was the first Field Marshal of India ?
(A) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(B) J. N. Chaudhuri
(C) K. S. Thimayya
(D) O. P. Malhotra
Ans : (A)

82. National Anthem was first sung in the year—
(A) 1947
(B) 1945
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
Ans : (C)

83. The 2011 Census would be the—
(A) 13th Census
(B) 14th Census
(C) 15th Census
(D) 16th Census
Ans : (B)

84. Which one of the following countries has the longest internatonal boundary with India ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (C)

85. Which actor played the role of Mahatma Gandhi in the film Gandhi ?
(A) Shah Rukh Khan
(B) Paresh Rawal
(C) Ben Kingsley
(D) Abhijit
Ans : (C)

86. The highest number of medals in the Beijing Olympics was won by—
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Ans : (B)

87. ‘Mandi House’ in New Delhi houses the—
(A) Office of the Chairman, DTC
(B) Office of the NDFC
(C) Office of the CPWC
(D) Office of the Director General of Doordarshan
Ans : (D)

88. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently raised the emoluments of the President, the Vice-President and the Governors. The emolument payable to the President has been raised to—
(A) Rs. 1•00 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
(B) Rs. 1•50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
(C) Rs. 1•75 lakh from Rs. 75,000 per month
(D) Rs. 2•00 lakh from Rs. 1•00 lakh per month
Ans : (B)

89. Who among the following is a Republican Party candidate for Vice-Presidentship for the next US Election ?
(A) John McCain
(B) Sarah Palin
(C) Ed Markay
(D) Thomas Reed
Ans : (B)

90. Amjad Ali Khan is a maestro with which instrument ?
(A) Violin
(B) Sitar
(C) Sarod
(D) Sarangi
Ans : (C)

91. Who was the winner of the ‘Best Actress Award’ at the 54th National Film Awards for the year 2007 ?
(A) Rani Mukherjee
(B) Priyamani
(C) Shilpa Shetty
(D) Kajol
Ans : (B)

92. NREGP is the abbreviated form of—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
(B) National Rural Educational Guarantee Programme
(C) National Rapid Educational Guarantee Programme
(D) National Rapid Employment Generation Programme
Ans : (A)

93. The venue for the XXX Olympic Games is—
(A) London
(B) Toronto
(C) Liverpool
(D) Las Vegas
Ans : (A)

94. The Commonwealth Games 2010 will be held in—
(A) Bangaluru
(B) Delhi
(C) Sydney
(D) Jamaica
Ans : (B)

95. Who among the following has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Sri. Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Prof. K. C. Reddy
(B) Prof. B. B. Bhattacharya
(C) Sri. Deepak Parikh
(D) Sri. D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)

96. The first Indian to win the ICC OD Player of the year (2008) Award is—
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) Virender Sehwag
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Ans : (D)

97. Nuclear energy is a mineralbased energy source. It is derived from—
(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Plutonium
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

98. Who among the following has been conferred the ‘Climate Protection Award’ by the Environment Protection Agency of the US ?
(A) Medha Patkar
(B) Rajendra Singh
(C) R. K. Pachauri
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans : (C)

99. With which sport do you associate the name of Geet Sethi ?
(A) Golf
(B) Billiards
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Cricket
Ans : (B)

100. DNA test was developed by—
(A) Dr. Alec Jeffreys
(B) Dr. V. K. Kashyap
(C) Watson and Crick
(D) Gregor Mendel
Ans : (A)
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PNB Agriculture Officers Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009
Professional Knowledge (Economics) : Solved Paper
(Held on 16-8-2009)

1. Say’s Law of Markets states that—
(A) Demand creates its own supply
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own demand
(D) Supply creates its own supply
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Malthusian theory of population is based on—
(A) Harmonic progression of population
(B) Geometric progression of food production
(C) Arithmetic progression of population
(D) Geometric progression of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (D)

3. Gresham’s Law states that—
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Both good money and bad money may co-exist
(D) Neither bad money nor good money may be long in circulation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


4. The on-going melt down had its origin in—
(A) The real sector
(B) The financial sector
(C) The service sector
(D) The textile sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. A competitive firm maximizes its profit when—
(A) MR = AR
(B) MR = MC
(C) MC = AC
(D) MC = AR
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. ‘Supernormal’ profit may exist in a market due to—
(A) Asymmetry of information
(B) Restriction of information
(C) Quantity restriction
(D) Price restriction
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

7. Profit is caused by—
(A) Dynamic element in the economy
(B) Innovation
(C) Windfall
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Interest is paid—
(A) To compensate for inflation
(B) Due to superiority of present over future goods
(C) Because demand for money outstrips its supply
(D) To ensure the growth of the real sector
(E) All the above
Ans : (B)

9. Investment is defined as a—
(A) Deployment of a sum in business operations
(B) Purchasing an interest bearing bond
(C) Change in the stock of capital
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. The unproductive expenditure of the rich is—
(A) Necessary to the employment of the poor
(B) An impediment to the growth of an economy
(C) Having no bearing on the economy
(D) Having bearing only on the economy of the rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains—
(A) Pattern of trade in terms of relative factor endowments of countries
(B) Why a country may import products which use extensively the country’s scarce factor
(C) The law of comparative cost
(D) The concept of reciprocal demand
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

12. ‘Quasi-rents’—
(A) Are in the nature of free gifts
(B) May be applicable to all factors of production
(C) Comprise of all the returns to the firm in excess of the returns of the marginal firm
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The indifference curve technique is essentially—
(A) A cardinal approach
(B) An ordinal approach
(C) A quasi-ordinal approach
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. The slope of an indifference curve expresses—
(A) The marginal rate of substitution of two goods
(B) A ratio of marginal utility of one good to another
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) A ratio of total utility of one good to another
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. ‘Pass through’ effect in international trade theory refers to—
(A) The proportion of an exchange rate change that is reflected in export and import price change
(B) Exports and imports not facing any tariff barrier
(C) Exports and imports not facing any technical barrier
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations—
(A) Started in 1986 and completed at the end of 1993
(B) Aimed at reversing the rising trend of non-tariff trade barriers
(C) Replaced the GATT with WTO
(D) Brought services and agriculture into WTO
(E) All of the above
Ans : (E)

17. Product Cycle Model in international trade theory (Vernon, 1966)—
(A) Is an extension of technological gap model
(B) Is an extension of Heckscher-Ohlin model
(C) Explains dynamic comparative advantage of new products and new processes of production
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

18. Hedging and speculation in forex markets—
(A) Are opposite activities
(B) Parallel activities
(C) Same activities
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. A currency swap refer to—
(A) A spot sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of single transaction
(B) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of a single transaction
(C) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—in two different transactions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Public-Private Partnership projects in India are mostly related to—
(A) Airports
(B) Ports
(C) Railways
(D) Roads
(E) Urban development
Ans : (D)

21. The largest share in the short term money market of India in recent times belonged to the segment—
(A) Collaterised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)
(B) Traditional repo
(C) Clearcorp Repo Over Matching System (CROMS)
(D) Call
(E) Others
Ans : (D)

22. As per the revised estimate of CSO, the GDP in India at factor cost during 2008-09 was—
(A) Rs. 28,71,120 crore
(B) Rs. 31,29,717 crore
(C) Rs. 33, 39,375 crore
(D) Rs. 44,82,436 crore
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. Mid Day Meal Scheme—
(A) Is a centrally funded and largest school meal scheme in the world
(B) Provides each child in government and government aided school a minimum of 300 calories and 8–12 gm of protein each day of school for a minimum of 200 days
(C) Provides lunch to about 120 million children
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Insurance penetration is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Insurance density is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

26. Minimum Support Prices of crops are recommended by—
(A) Planning Commission of India
(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(C) Finance Commission of India
(D) Farmers’ Commission of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. The Electricity (Amendment) Act 2007—
(A) Dispensed with licence requirement for sale from captive units
(B) Provided for joint effort by the Central and State governments for providing access to all areas including villages and markets
(C) Expanded the definition of theft to cover the use of tampered meters
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. In times of slowdown of the economy, the fiscal policy influences aggregate demand through—
(A) Discretionary element
(B) Non-discretionary element
(C) Lowering of tax rates
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Thirteenth Finance Commission is headed by—
(A) Dr. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(C) Dr. Suresh Tendulkar
(D) Dr. C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. A constitutionally recognized body is—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Forward Commission
(D) Farmers Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched by GOI in August 2007 with the objective(s) of—
(A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors
(B) To ensure that local needs/crops/priorities are better reflected
(C) To achieve the goal of reducing the yield gaps in important crops
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. The Buffer Stock of foodgrains at the beginning of February 2009 stood at—
(A) 16•2 million tonnes
(B) 20•0 million tonnes
(C) 37•4 million tonnes
(D) 36•2 million tonnes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Public Private Partnership came to be introduced in India to—
(A) Mitigate the financial burden of the governments
(B) Respond to the technological change that allow unbundling of infrastructure
(C) Alter the character of goods and services from pure public to private ones
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Heteroscedasticity in econometric analysis means—
(A) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is the same for all i’s
(B) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is not the same for all i’s
(C) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is the same
(D) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is not the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Autocorrelation in econometric analysis refers to—
(A) The correlation between the values of different variables
(B) The correlation between the values of alternative variables
(C) The correlation between successive values of the same variable
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. Durbin-Watson Test is applied in econometric models to test—
(A) Presence of heteroscedasticity in a model
(B) For autocorrelated errors in the sample data
(C) For multicorrelinearity
(D) For autoregressive disturbances
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. A weakly stationary stochastic process is so called, if—
(A) Its mean and variance are constant over time
(B) The value of covariance between two time periods depends only on lag between two time periods
(C) The value of covariance does not depend on the actual time at which the covariance is computed
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. Dummy variables are used in regression models—
(A) To represent important variables that are not qualitatively measurable
(B) To capture the effect of specific attributes
(C) As binary variables
(D) To distinguish between two groups of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (C)

39. Principal components in econometric analysis—
(A) Are linear combinations
(B) Help to increase the degrees of freedom
(C) Help to reduce high degree of multicorrelinearity
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. If world population grows at 2•6 per cent, then it will double in—
(A) 44•34 years
(B) 36•92 years
(C) 29•32 years
(D) 26•66 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

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United India Insurance Co Administrative Officers Exam, 2009 : General Knowledge (Solved Paper)

United India Insurance Co. Administrative Officers Exam., 2009

(Held on 24-5-2009)
General Knowledge and Current Affairs : Solved Paper

1. What is Siam now known as ?
(A) Laos
(B) Thailand
(C) Vietnam
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)

2. The correct group of cities, through which National Highway No. 8 passes is—
(A) Bikaner, Ajmer, Kota
(B) Jodhpur, Jaipur, Bikaner
(C) Jaipur, Udaipur, Ahmedabad
(D) Jaipur, Pune, Udaipur
Ans : (C)

3. Through its power of judicial review, the Supreme Court ensures—
(A) Judicial Supremacy
(B) A democrtic government in the country
(C) A constitutional government in the country
(D) That Parliament Sovereignty is curbed
Ans : (D)


4. Which unit of valuation is known as ‘Paper Gold’ ?
(A) Petrodollar
(B) SDR
(C) Eurodollar
(D) GDR
Ans : (B)

5. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem ?
(A) 47 seconds
(B) 50 seconds
(C) 52 seconds
(D) 60 seconds
Ans : (C)

6. When was Barack Obama sworn in as the 44th President of U.S.A. ?
(A) January 15, 2009
(B) January 20, 2009
(C) January 25, 2009
(D) January 30, 2009
Ans : (B)

7. The Movie ‘Slumdog Millionaire’ is based on a novel ‘Q and A’ written by an Indian—
(A) Khuswant Singh
(B) Khalid Mohammad
(C) Sabarjit Singh
(D) Vikas Swarup
Ans : (D)

8. Who has been appointed the first Director-General of the ‘National Investigation Agency (NIA)’ ?
(A) P. S. Sharma
(B) A. Gopalswami
(C) Radha Vinod Raju
(D) K. C. Verma
Ans : (C)

9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, can the President of India withhold his assent to a Bill passed by both the houses of Parliament ?
(A) Article, 100
(B) Article, 111
(C) Article, 200
(D) Article, 222
Ans : (B)

10. Which language is spoken by the people of Tripura ?
(A) Bengali
(B) Telugu
(C) Assamese
(D) Malayalam
Ans : (A)

11. Surya Shekhar Ganguly is a player of—
(A) Chess
(B) Cricket
(C) Golf
(D) Hockey
Ans : (A)

12. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
1. To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals
2. To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities
3. To attract foreign investment directly
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 all
Ans : (C)

13. With which is ‘Uro Cup’ associated ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Polo
(D) Wrestling
Ans : (B)

14. World Environment Day is on—
(A) June, 5
(B) June, 11
(C) June, 17
(D) June, 30
Ans : (A)

15. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?
(A) Adamgarh
(B) Bhimbetka
(C) Ghagharia
(D) Lekhia
Ans : (B)

16. Heat received by earth from the sun is known as—
(A) Isolation
(B) Solar heat
(C) Solar radiation
(D) Thermal radiation
Ans : (A)

17. Who invented Coronograph which allowed the study of the sun without waiting for a total solar eclipse ?
(A) Donald Menzel
(B) Pierre Jenseen
(C) John Evershed
(D) Bernard Lyot
Ans : (D)

18. Who wrote ‘The Structure of the Universe’, giving in detail the origin of the universe and its present status, among other things ?
(A) Robert Jastrow
(B) S. Chandrashekhar
(C) Jayant V. Narlikar
(D) Carl Sagan
Ans : (C)

19. Name the Sri Lankan town which has been the Tamil Tiger’s administrative and political headquarters and has been captured by the army recently ?
(A) Kandy
(B) Jaffana
(C) Kilinochchi
(D) Mullaithivu
Ans : (C)

20. Which committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under Section, 88 ?
(A) Kelkar Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Chelliah Committee
(D) Shome Committee
Ans : (D)
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