Jharkhand PCS Civil Judge Jun. Div. Munsif (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Solved Paper

Jharkhand P.C.S. Civil Judge Jun. Div. Munsif (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 21-12-2008)
Law : Solved Paper

1. The commission to make local investigation can be issued for the purposes of—
1. Collecting evidence on a fact
2. Elucidating any matter in dispute
3. Ascertaining the amount of mesne profit
4. Ascertaining the market value of the property
Which of the above are correct ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (B)

2. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or a State for the act done in the official capacity of the officer concerned, under Section 82 C.P.C., execution shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of—
(A) 3 months from the date of the decree
(B) 6 months from the date of the decree
(C) 1 year from the date of the decree
(D) 2 years from the date of the decree
Ans : (A)

3. Assertion (A) : The rule of constructive res judicata is applicable to writ petitions.
Reason (R) : Public policy considerations underlying res judicata also hold true in relation to writ proceedings.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (A)

4. A residing in Delhi publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A in—
(A) Delhi only
(B) Kolkata only
(C) Either Delhi or Kolkata
(D) Anywhere in India with the leave of the court
Ans : (C)

5. Which one of the following suits is not of a civil nature ?
(A) Suits relating to rights to property
(B) Suits for rents
(C) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
(D) Suits against dismissals from service
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following is not a sufficient cause for granting adjournment ?
(A) Sickness of a party, his witness or his counsel
(B) Non-examination of a witness present in the court
(C) Non-service of summons
(D) Reasonable time for preparation of a case
Ans : (B)

7. Where a plaintiff sues upon a document in his power or possession, he must produce it or a copy thereof—
(A) Along with the plaint
(B) At the time of giving of evidence
(C) At the time of framing of issues
(D) When ordered by the court
Ans : (A)

8. Voluntary amendment is provided for under—
(A) Order 6, R.7, C.P.C.
(B) Order 6, R.15, C.P.C.
(C) Order 6, R.17, C.P.C.
(D) Order 6, R.19, C.P.C.
Ans : (C)

9. A plaint is liable to be returned, when—
(A) Plaint is on an insufficiently stamped paper
(B) Plaint is not filed in duplicate
(C) Relief is undervalued in the plaint
(D) Plaint is filed in a court having no jurisdiction
Ans : (D)

10. The expression, “Each party shall bear his own costs” implies that—
(A) Both the parties are entitled to cost from each other
(B) Both the parties are not to be deprived of costs
(C) Both the parties are to be deprived of costs
(D) Both the parties are not entitled to cost from each other
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following questions is not to be determined by an executing court ?
(A) Discharge of decree
(B) Execution of decree
(C) Modification of decree
(D) Satisfaction of decree
Ans : (C)

12. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has upheld the validity of Section 51 of Code of Civil Procedure ?
(A) Xavier Vs. Bank of Canara
(B) The Visaka case
(C) Indian Gramophone Co. Vs. Birendra Bahadur Pandey
(D) Jolly George Verghese Vs. Bank of Cochin
Ans : (D)

13. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality of the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts of 1999 and 2002 ?
(A) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu Vs. Union of India
(B) Delhi High Court Bar Association Vs. Union of India
(C) Allahabad High Court Bar Association Vs. Union of India
(D) Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar Association Vs. Union of India
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following is a true statement in relation to Section 80 of Civil Procedure Code ?
(A) A suit without service of notice can be instituted generally, with the leave of the court
(B) A suit without service of notice can be instituted in cases of urgent or immediate relief, with the leave of the court
(C) In cases of urgent or immediate relief where leave to institute the suit without service of notice has been granted, interim or otherwise ex parte relief can be granted
(D) No suit under Section 80 can be instituted without the compliance of the requirement of notice
Ans : (B)

15. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List–I
(a) Set-off
(b) Mesne profit
(c) Indigent
(d) Subsistance allowance
List–II
1. Amount paid by the decreeholder for detention of the judgment-debtor in civil prison
2. Person allowed to file suit or appeal without court fee
3. Adjustment of defendant’s claim with the plaintiff’s claim
4. Gains from property by a person having wrongful possession
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(1) Right to file caveat —Section 148-A, C.P.C.
(2) Pauper suit —Section 33, C.P.C.
(3) Privileged document —Section 29, C.P.C.
(4) Powers of appellate court —Section 102, C.P.C.
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

17. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List–I
(a) Restitution afresh
(b) Next friend
(c) Legal representative
(d) Garnishees
List-II
1. Representative of a minor or a plaintiff of unsound mind in a civil suit
2. Person representing the estate of the deceased
3. Debtor of the judgmentdebtor liable for payment or delivery
4. Setting aside ex parte decree and rehearing the case
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (C)

18. In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of—
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) One-half
Ans : (C)

19. Under Order XVIII, Rule 4(1) of C.P.C., the examination in chief of a witness shall be recorded—
(A) By the Judge
(B) By the Commissioner appointed by the court
(C) On affidavit
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

20. When a party is called upon by notice to admit facts by the other party, under Order XII, Rule 4 of C.P.C., the party on whom the notice has been served has to admit the facts within—
(A) 15 days of the service of notice
(B) 9 days of the service of notice
(C) 7 days of the service of notice
(D) 6 days of the service of notice
Ans : (D)

21. Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (C)

22. Reasons for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in—
(A) State of Nagaland Vs. Rattan Singh
(B) Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura Vs. Province of Assam
(C) Zarzoliana Vs. Government of Mizoram
(D) State of Nagaland Vs. Chung
Ans : (A)

23. Who can appoint a police officer as an assistant public prosecutor for courts of Magistrates ?
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District and Sessions Judge
(C) District Magistrate
(D) High Court on the request of the State Government
Ans : (C)

24. Who among the following can be arrested without warrant by any Magistrate ?
(A) Any person committing offences within the local jurisdiction of such Magistrate but not in his presence
(B) Any person committing offences anywhere, but in the presence of such Magistrate
(C) Any person within his local jurisdiction for whose arrest he is competent to issue a warrant
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

25. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List–I
(a) Special Metropolitan Magistrate
(b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
(d) Assistant Sessions Judge
List–II
1. Imprisonment up to 7 years or/and fine
2. Imprisonment up to 10 years or/and fine
3. Imprisonment up to 3 years or/and fine
4. Imprisonment up to 1 year or/and fine up to Rs. 1,000
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (D)

26. Where two or more courts have taken cognizance of the same offence and a question arises as to which of them ought to inquire into or try the offence, the question shall be decided—
1. If the courts are subordinate to the same High Court, by that High Court
2. By the High Court within the local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the accused resides, carries on business or is engaged in a gainful employment
3. If the courts are subordinate to the same High Court, by the High Court in consultation with the State Government concerned
4. If the courts are not subordinate to the same High Court, by that court within the local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were first commenced
Which of the above are correct ?
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

27. Assertion (A) : Power of the State to order cases to be tried in different sessions divisions is very limited.
Reasons (R) : This extraordinary power is to be used when consideration of public justice justifies its exercise.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (A)

28. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Chief Judicial Magistrate imposes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 100
(D) Rs. 300
Ans : (C)

29. “Too many appeals and revisions are a bane of the Indian Judicial System, involving as it does sterile expense and delay and fruitless chase of perfection.”
Justice Krishna Iyer made this observation in—
(A) Harnam Singh Vs. State of HP
(B) Mohd. Sauman Ali Vs. State of Assam
(C) Sitaram Vs. State of UP
(D) Jawaharlal Singh Vs. Naresh Singh
Ans : (A)

30. In a case the Supreme Court observed thus—“We are unable to find any magic or charm in the ritual of a charge. It is the substance of these provisions (relating to charge) that count and not their outform. To hold otherwise is only to provide avenues or escape for the guilty and afford no protection to the innocent.” The court made these observations in relation to—
(A) Alteration of charge
(B) Joinder of charges
(C) Persons who may be charged jointly
(D) Error, omission or irregularity in charge
Ans : (D)

31. Which of the following offences is triable summarily ?
(A) Theft where the value of the property stolen does not exceed Rs. 500
(B) Lurking house trespass
(C) Assisting in the concealment of stolen property of the value not exceeding Rs. 300
(D) Receiving or retaining stolen property under Section 411, I.P.C. when the value of the property does not exceed Rs. 250
Ans : All answers are correct

32. The period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years is—
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 year
(C) 3 years
(D) 4 years
Ans : (C)

33. In which of the following cases the constitutional validity of Section 433-A, Cr.P.C. was upheld ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Golu Vs. Union of India
(B) Babu Pahalwan Vs. State of MP
(C) Ramesh Vs. State of MP
(D) Karan Singh Vs. State of HP
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is an interlocutory order for the purposes of revisional powers of the High Court or a Sessions Court ?
(A) Orders summoning witnesses
(B) An order of bail granted by a Magistrate
(C) An order rejecting the plea of the accused on a point which when accepted, will conclude the particular proceeding
(D) Interlocutory orders which are without jurisdiction and nullities
Ans : (A)

35. A is only charged with theft and it appears that he committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. In this context, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) He may be acquitted
(B) He may be convicted only of theft
(C) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust
(D) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of trust
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following courts can set aside or modify the conditions imposed by a Magistrate when granting bail ?
(A) High Court or Court of Sessions under Section 439, Cr.P.C.
(B) High Court under Section 482, Cr.P.C.
(C) Sessions Court under Section 465, Cr.P.C.
(D) Court of Sessions under Section 438, Cr.P.C.
Ans : (A)

37. An offence of bigamy punishable under Section 494, I.P.C. was committed by A in Patna. The place where A resided with his first wife B was Gaya and the place where his first wife took up a permanent residence after the commission of the offence is Bhagalpur. The offence may be inquired into or tried by a court of competent jurisdiction at—
(A) Patna
(B) Bhagalpur
(C) Gaya
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

38. A Magistrate has power to deal with urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance under—
(A) Section 133, Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 144, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 145, Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 107, Cr.P.C.
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following Magistrates have power to prohibit repetition or continuance of public nuisance ?
1. District Magistrate
2. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
3. Judicial Magistrate
4. Executive Magistrate duly empowered in this behalf
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

60. Assertion (A) : The provisions for reviewing the decision of a criminal court are essential for the due protection of life and liberty.
Reasons (R) : They are based on the notion that Judges and Magistrates are not infallible.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (D)

61. The question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that he said, he had been robbed without making any complaint—
(A) Is relevant showing preparation for relevant facts
(B) Is relevant showing conduct
(C) Is relevant showing effect of relevant facts
(D) May be relevant under Section 32 or Section 157 of the Evidence Act
Ans : (D)

62. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to sell them below their value. He may—
(A) Not prove this statement
(B) Prove if it is relevant otherwise than an admission
(C) Prove it as it is explanatory of conduct influenced by facts in issue
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) An admission by a guardian and litem against a minor is evidence
(B) Admission on a point of law made by a pleader in court on behalf of the client is evidence
(C) Admission by one of the several defendants in a suit against another defendant is evidence
(D) Admission of fact made by a pleader in court on behalf of his client is evidence
Ans : (D)

64. Which one of the following is the true statement in relation to the relevancy of character ?
(A) In criminal cases, previous good character is irrelevant
(B) In criminal proceedings, previous bad character is relevant
(C) In civil cases, character to prove conduct imputed is relevant
(D) In civil cases, character of any person affecting the amount of damages is relevant
Ans : (D)

65. When the court has to form an opinion as to the digital signature of any person, the opinion of which of the following is relevant ?
(A) Certifying Authority
(B) Controller appointed under the Information Technology Act
(C) Internet Service Provider
(D) Certifying Authority which had issued digital signature certificate
Ans : (D)

66. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court raised doubts regarding the applicability of the doctrine of equitable estoppel beyond Section 115, Evidence Act ?
(A) Mercantile Bank of India Ltd. Vs. Central Bank of India Ltd.
(B) Madanappa Vs. Chandramma
(C) Turner Morrison and Co. Vs. Hungerford Investment Trust Ltd.
(D) Sitaram Vs. State of UP
Ans : (A)

67. No revenue officer shall be compelled to say whence he got any information as to the commission of any offence against the public revenue. This provision is contained in—
(A) Section 125, Evidence Act
(B) Section 124, Evidence Act
(C) Section 123, Evidence Act
(D) Section 126, Evidence Act
Ans : (A)

68. No confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
The rationale of this rule is stated in—
(A) Queen Empress V s . Abdullah
(B) Queen Empress Vs. Babulal
(C) Queen Vs. Lillyman
(D) Pakla Narayan Swamy Vs. Emperor
Ans : (B)

69. Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of five, how many of them need to be proved ?
(A) Five
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Two
Ans : (C)

70. Assertion (A) : A gives B a receipt for money paid by B. Oral evidence is offered for the payment. The evidence is admissible.
Reason (R) : A receipt is not a contract or grant in respect of which oral evidence is barred.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (A)

71. Assertion (A) : Section 91 and 92, Evidence Act should be read together.
Reason (R) : These two Sections supplement each other.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (A)

72. The court shall take judicial notice of—
(A) Foreign judicial records
(B) National Flag of a State not recognized by India
(C) Stephen’s Digest on Criminal Law
(D) Rule of Road on land (and in sea)
Ans : (D)

73. Which of the following is an example of ‘may presume’ ?
(A) Presumption as to electronic records
(B) Presumption as to digital signature certificate
(C) Presumption as to electronic messages
(D) Presumption as to electronic agreements
Ans : (C)

74. Section 58 of the Evidence Act deals with—
(A) Formal admissions
(B) Evidentiary admissions
(C) Formal as well as evidentiary admissions
(D) Proof of facts by oral evidence
Ans : (C)

75. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Relevancy of statements as to law contained in law books
—Section 38, Evidence Act,
(B) Relevancy of statements in maps, charts, etc.
—Section 35 Evidence Act
(C) Relevancy of certain evidence for proving in subsequent proceedings the truth of facts therein stated
—Section 34, Evidence Act
(D) Relevancy of statement as to facts of public nature
—Section 37, Evidence Act
Ans : (C)

76. In which of the following instances there is no reasonground for asking the witness the question whether he is a dacoit ?
(A) A barrister is instructed by an attorney that an important witness is a dacoit
(B) A pleader is informed by a person in court that an important witness is a dacoit. The information on being questioned by the pleader gives satisfactory reasons for his statement
(C) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is known, is asked randomly, whether he is a dacoit
(D) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is known, being questioned as to his mode of life and means of living gives unsatisfactory answers
Ans : (C)

77. Husband and wife—
(A) Are competent witnesses against each other in matrimonial cases
(B) Are not competent witnesses against each other as they are one person in law
(C) Are competent witnesses against each other in civil cases only
(D) Are competent witnesses against each other in civil as well as criminal cases
Ans : (D)

78. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List–I
(a) Bloodstains and blood group
(b) Automatic camera
(c) Tape-recorded statement
(d) Handwriting
List–II
1. Reg Vs. Dodson
2. State of Gujarat Vs. Chhota Lal Patni
3. B Vs. Attorney-General
4. Yusufalli Vs. State of Maharashtra
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (D)

79. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) That a man heard or said something —Fact
(B) A map or plan —Document
(C) Copies made from or compared with the original —Evidence
(D) Facts connected to a fact in issue in such a manner as to constitute part of the same transaction —Rule nisi
Ans : (D)

80. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List–I
(a) Confession caused by inducement, threat, promise
(b) Confession to a customs officer
(c) Confession in the FIR given by the accused
(d) Discovery of a fact pursuant to a statement in police custody
List–II
1. Aghnoo Nagesia Vs. State
2. State of Punjab Vs. Barkatram
3. Pyarelal Bhargava Vs. State of Rajasthan
4. State of Bombay Vs. Kathi Kalu Oghad
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (D)

81. Which one of the following is not provided in Sections 4 and 5 of the Contract Act ?
(A) Communication of offer
(B) Communication of acceptance
(C) Revocation of proposal and acceptance
(D) Revocation of contract
Ans : (D)

82. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud ?
(A) Active concealment of a fact
(B) A promise made without any intention of performing it
(C) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(D) A represenation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
Ans : (D)

83. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default is known as—
(A) Damage
(B) Penalty
(C) Liquidated damage
(D) Compensation
Ans : (B)

84. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List–I
(a) Tinn Vs. Hoffman and Co.
(b) Fisher Vs. Bell
(c) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(d) Harvey Vs. Facey
List–II
1. Invitation to treat
2. Offers at large
3. Cross offers
4. Quotation of price
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : All answers are incorrent

85. Which one of the following propositions is correct ?
(A) A minor’s contract being void, a minor is not bound to pay for necessities supplied to him
(B) A minor’s contract being voidable he is bound to pay for necessities supplied to him
(C) A minor is bound to pay for necessities supplied to him because a minor’s contract is valid
(D) A minor’s contract is void but he is bound to pay for necessities supplied to him
Ans : (D)

86. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List–I
(a) Supervening impossibility
(b) Consideration
(c) Good faith
(d) Dunlop Tyre Co. Vs. Selfridge and Co.
List–II
1. Uberrima fides contract
2. Frustration
3. Privity of contract
4. Quid pro quo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (C)

87. Assertion (A) : Marriage brokerage contract is valid.
Reason (R) : Marriage brokerage contract is opposed to public policy.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (D)

88. Which of the following are the duties of a bailee ?
1. Duty to take reasonable care of goods
2. Duty not to make unauthorized use of goods
3. Duty not to mix his own goods with the goods bailed
4. Duty to compensate when goods is damaged despite of the care of the bailee
Codes :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (B)

89. Adomsen Vs. Jarvis is a leading case on—
(A) Bailment
(B) Contract of Indemnity
(C) Contract of Guarantee
(D) Pledge
Ans : (B)

90. The principle of agency of necessity is—
(A) Applicable in emergent situations where communication with the principal is not possible
(B) Applicable in normal situations if the communication with the principal is possible
(C) Unknown to the law of agency
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

91. A gives woolen cloth to B, a tailor, for making a suit. The tailor’s charges are settled at Rs. 500. After the suit is ready, A tenders Rs. 500 for the charges but the tailor refuses to deliver the suit till A pays an old due. In such case—
(A) B can refuse to deliver the suit
(B) B cannot refuse to deliver the suit
(C) B can refuse in certain circumstances
(D) B can sell the suit
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Pledge made by a person having a limited interest is valid to the extent of that interest
(B) Pledge made by a person under voidable contract is valid
(C) Pledge made by a mercantile agent is valid
(D) Goods may be pledged by the servant in the absence of owner
Ans : (A)

93. Assertion (A) : The liability of the surety is coextensive with that of the principal debtor unless it is otherwise provided by the contract.
Reason (R) : Any variance, made without the surety’s consent, in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor, discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to variance.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans : (B)

94. A without the request of anybody extinguishes the fire of B’s godown. A suffers injury thereby. B promises to compensate A for the whole amount he has spent for his treatment. The contract is—
(A) Unenforceable
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Enforceable
Ans : (D)

95. Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken of as a substitute for—
(A) Novation
(B) Quasi-contract
(C) Consideration
(D) Coercion
Ans : (B)

96. X, a trader, leaves goods at Y’s house by mistake. If Y uses the goods, then which one of the following is correct when X demands the price of goods and Y refuses to pay ?
(A) Y is not bound to pay as he becomes the owner of the goods left at his home
(B) Y is bound to pay as X did not intend to supply goods gratuitously and Y enjoyed the benefits of X’s act
(C) Y is not bound to pay as he did not ask for the goods
(D) X must suffer for his mistake and he cannot recover the price of goods from Y
Ans : (B)

97. X contracted with a tent house for erecting a shamiana for performing the marriage of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a curfew was clamped in the area preventing the celebration of the marriage. The shamiana owner claims the charges agreed to be paid by X. In the light of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) X has to pay the contracted charges
(B) X need not pay the agreed charges but only reasonable charges
(C) X can require the State to bear the claim for damages
(D) X need not pay anything as the celebration of the marriage was impossible on account of the curfew
Ans : (D)

98. In which of the following instances has the discharge of agreement not been effected ?
(A) A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards forbid him to do so
(B) A owes B Rs. 5,000. C pays to B Rs. 1,000 which B accepts in satisfaction of his claim against A
(C) A awaits arrival of B to finish the painting for B
(D) A owes B Rs. 2,000 and is also indebted to other creditors. A makes an arrangement with his creditors, including B, to pay them, half of the loan amount. A pays to B Rs. 1,000
Ans : (C)

99. A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain event not happening within a fixed time—
(A) Can be enforced if the event does not happen within the fixed time
(B) Cannot be enforced at all, being void
(C) Can be enforced if before the expiry of fixed time, it becomes certain that such an event shall not happen
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (D)

100. Which one of the following is a contract ?
(A) An agreement to do a lawful act by an unlawful means
(B) An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay the timebarred debt
(C) An agreement in restraint of a lawful trade
(D) An agreement to pay Rs. 10,000 without consideration
Ans : (B)

Jharkhand PCS Civil Judge Jun. Div. Munsif (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Solved Paper

Jharkhand P.C.S. Civil Judge Jun. Div. Munsif (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 21-12-2008)
General Knowledge and General English : Solved Paper

1. Who propounded the theory that “the earth moves round the sun” ?
(A) Galileo
(B) Einstein
(C) Copernicus
(D) Graham Bell
Ans : (A)

2. Gerontology is a branch of study related to diseases associated with—
(A) Children
(B) Young adults
(C) Old age
(D) Women
Ans : (C)

3. What is the title of the former US President Mr. Bill Clinton’s autobiography ?
(A) My Days
(B) My Life
(C) My Story
(D) My Years
Ans : (B)

4. On which date of the year is ‘World Environment Day’ celebrated ?
(A) January 5
(B) March 5
(C) June 5
(D) November 5
Ans : (C)

5. Who was the first Indian Prime Minister to address the UN General Assembly in Hindi ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Atal Behari Vajpayee
Ans : (D)

6. Recently, which Indian cricketer set a record by scoring the highest runs in Test Cricket ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Yuvraj Singh
Ans : (B)

7. In the last Olympics at Beijing, who won the first ever individual Gold Medal for India ?
(A) Bijender Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Sushil Kumar
(D) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
Ans : (B)

8. Till date, who is the only Indian to have been awarded the Nobel Prize for literature ?
(A) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) R. K. Narayan
Ans : (C)

9. Which State of India has bagged two National Awards associated with tourism in 2008 ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (A)

10. What is the full name of the President of India ?
(A) Pratibha Patil
(B) Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
(C) Pratibha Devi Patil
(D) Pratibha Singh Patil
Ans : (B)

11. Identify the type of the sentence given below :
John proposed that we should sing together.
(A) Assertive
(B) Optative
(C) Exclamatory
(D) Imperative
Ans : (A)

12. Which part of the given sentence contains an error ?
If I was you (A) / I would not (B) / agree to (C) / that foolish proposal. (D)
Ans : (A)

13. Fill in the blank with appropriate ‘preposition’.
I cannot come back ……a month.
(A) before
(B) in
(C) within
(D) between
Ans : (A)

14. Give one word for the following group of words.
A person aged between 60 and 70—
(A) Sexagenarian
(B) Quinquagenarian
(C) Septuagenarian
(D) Nonagenarian
Ans : (A)

15. Which one, from amongst the choices given, would mean the same as the following sentence ? I feel an aching void.
(A) I feel lonely
(B) I feel pain
(C) I feel hungry
(D) I feel irritation
Ans : (A)

16. From amongst the choices given, which one of the clauses correctly completes the following sentence ?
I shall have left this place by the time……….
(A) she will come
(B) she would come
(C) she comes
(D) she will have come
Ans : (C)

17. Such words as are similar in sound but different in meaning are called—
(A) Synonyms
(B) Antonyms
(C) Homonyms
(D) Homophones
Ans : (D)

18. Select the appropriate ‘article’ to be filled in the blank in the given sentence.
He is ……… SP.
(A) an
(B) a
(C) the
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

19. Identify the ‘figure of speech’ that best defines the following sentence.
The camel is the ship of the desert—
(A) Simile
(B) Metaphor
(C) Irony
(D) Sarcasm
Ans : (B)

20. Identify the ‘part of speech’ in which the word ‘round’ has been used in the following sentence.
The earth moves round the sun—
(A) Noun
(B) Preposition
(C) Adjective
(D) Adverb
Ans : (B)

Canara Bank P.O. Exam., 2009 : General Awareness

Canara Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 15-3-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. As per the recent reports published in newspapers/magazines, India ranks at a lower level in Hunger Index. The Hunger Index is measured on which of the following indicators?
1. Child Malnutrition
2. Rate of Child Mortality
3. Rate of Literacy
4. No. of people who are calories deficient
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Who amongst the following economists gave the concept of ‘economies of scale’, which says ‘many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series’ ?
(A) Edward C. Prescott
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Gary S. Becker
(D) Edmund S. Phelps
(E) Paul Krugman
Ans : (E)

3. As per the recent report which of the following countries emerged as India's top trading partner during 2008-09 ?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) USA
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. In its mid term review of the economy the Reserve Bank of India pegged the country’s economic growth for fiscal year 2008-09 at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 7%
(D) 7.7%
(E) 8.7%
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following countries has elected Joe Biden as its Vice President in its general elections held in November 2008 ?
(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about ‘Sovereign Wealth Funds’. Which of the following is/are the correct description of the same ?
1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages are known as sovereign funds.
(A) Both 2 and 3 only
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River ?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ganga
(D) Kaveri
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Very often we read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What was the purpose of promoting SEZs in India ?
1. They are established to promote exports.
2. They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
3. They are established to help poorest of the poors in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only for poors and those living below poverty line.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. The Asian Cooperation Dialogue Conference of 31 nations was organized in October 2008 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Seoul (S. Korea)
(C) Beijing (China)
(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(E) Astana (Kazakhastan)
Ans : (E)

10. The White Tiger is a book written by—
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) V. S. Naipaul
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) Aravind Adiga
Ans : (E)

11. The Ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with RBI is known as—
(A) Liquidity Ratio
(B) SLR
(C) CRR
(D) Net Demand & Time Liability
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

12. A Rs. 35000 crore JSW Steel Plant was inaugurated in November 2008 in—
(A) Kota
(B) Nandigram
(C) Pune
(D) Jamshedpur
(E) Salboni
Ans : (E)

13. The Govt. of India in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief package of Rs.—
(A) 1000 crores
(B) 2500 crores
(C) 4000 crores
(D) 5000 crores
(E) 7000 crores
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following awards/honours was conferred upon Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently ?
(A) Man of the year
(B) Kala Shikhar Samman
(C) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

15. Which of the following Space Craft was launched recently to prepare a 3 dimensional Atlas of the lunar surface and also for chemical mapping of entire lunar surface ?
(A) PSLV-II
(B) Chandrayan II
(C) Chandrayan III
(D) Chandrayan-I
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. As per new revised rules now Foreign Direct Investment in Insurance sector is possible upto the limit of—
(A) 26%
(B) 40%
(C) 49%
(D) 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. Who amongst the following players recently became the first ever Indian to win a World Championship in Badminton ?
(A) P. Gopichand
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Aparna Popat
(D) Nandu M. Natekar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following countries got Wanchuck as its fifth King recently ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Nepal
(C) Japan
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. As per the news reports members of the SAARC agreed to establish a 'SAARC Food Bank' to ensure
food security for members in case of any emergency. Which of the following nations agreed to provide maximum quantity of food for the bank ?
(It will provide 1,53,200 tonnes)
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Nepal
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)

20. The availability of Cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as—
(A) Cash crunch
(B) Liquidity
(C) Credit
(D) Marketability
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries so that they are allowed to deal smoothly with the problem of fishermen who cross International Maritime Boundary Line ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. The World Development Report 2009 was released recently. Who publishes the World Development Report every year?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) United Nations Organizations
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. The 3rd IBSA Summit took place in New Delhi in October 2008. Which of the following statements about the same is/are correct ?
1. Leaders agreed to set a trilateral trade target of US$ 25 million by 2015.
2. Leaders adopted a 50 point Delhi Summit Declaration which has their views on global governance.
3. IBSA agreed to provide its membership to China and Russia from 2011
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. As per newspaper reports India's Trade gap is showing a negative growth since last few months ‘Trade Gap’ means what ?
(A) Gap between total GDP and total consumption
(B) Gap between total Imports and total Exports
(C) Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months
(D) Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. Mr. Kgalema Motlanthe who was on a visit to India in October 2008 is the—
(A) President of South Africa
(B) Prime Minister of South Africa
(C) President of Kenya
(D) Prime Minister of Kenya
(E) Deputy Director General of UNO
Ans : (A)

26. As per the reports published in newspapers India allowed to open Cross-LOC Trade after a gap of about 60 years. Which of the following routes was thrown open for the same ?
(A) Srinagar-Muzaffarabad
(B) Kolkata-Dhaka
(C) Varanasi-Kathmandu
(D) Imphal-Yangon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Who amongst the following scored his 40th century in the Test cricket while playing against Australia in Nagpur in November 2008 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) M. S. Dhoni
(D) Harbhajan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Mr. Mohammed Anni Nasheed's name was in news in recent past as he has taken over as President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Maldives
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. The financial turmoil all over the world in recent past has also put some effect on Indian economy. What measures RBI had taken to improve the situation ?
1. SLR has been reduced by one percentage points and at present is 24%
2. An advance of Rs. 25,000 crore provided to banks/financial institutions under the Agricultural debt waiver
and Debt Relief Schemes.
3. RBI allowed banks to raise their capital by issuing Investment Bonds. Almost all big banks have issued such bond in recent past.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) Only 1 & 2 both
Ans : (A)

30. Shivraj Chauhan has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Delhi
Ans : (A)

31. ‘Jnanpith Award’ is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Music
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Films
(E) Social Services
Ans : (B)

32. Who amongst the following recently announced his Retirement from the cricket world ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Harbhajan Singh
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. The second ‘BIMSTEC Summit’ was organized in November 2008 in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Thimpu
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. The Govt. of India recently signed an agreement with Malaysia to facilitate employment of workers between the two countries. Which of the following was/were the reason(s) owing to which both the nations decided to make an agreement for the same ?
1. Malaysia is an important destination for Indian workers as Malaysia has almost 1.5 lakh Indian workers.
2. Most of the Indians are employed with the plantation and construction sectors where they were not getting a fair treatment.
3. In the last few years there was a strong opposition to employ Indians as the unemployment rate in Malaysia is almost 30%
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

35. Besides USA and France, India has also a Civil Nuclear Deal with—
(A) Britain
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following countries signed an agreement with Russia so that, the country did not attack on it in future and Russia also did not do the same ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Croatia
(C) Slovakia
(D) Tajikistan
(E) Mangolia
Ans : (A)

37. The third Commonwealth Youth Games were organized in October 2008 in—
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Pune
(D) Lucknow
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (C)

38. Miss Karla Paula Henry won which of the following titles when she participated in an event in November 2008 in Philippines ?
(A) Miss Earth
(B) Miss World
(C) Miss Universe
(D) Miss Asia Pacific
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Development as Freedom’ ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) C. Rangarajan
(C) Y. V. Reddy
(D) Bimal Jalan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

40. Who amongst the following cine star of India became the first upon whom Malaysian title ‘Datuk’ was conferred recently ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Akshay Khanna
(C) Salman Khan
(D) Shah Rukh Khan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. Mr. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the—
(A) President of New Zealand
(B) President of Australia
(C) President of Sweden
(D) President of Canada
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

42. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 9th March
(B) 9th February
(C) 9th January
(D) 19th February
(E) 19th January
Ans : (C)

43. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in—
(A) Kolar
(B) Raniganj
(C) Jadugoda
(D) Veeranam
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following two programmes are the parts of the National Social Assistance programme of the Govt. of India?
1. Indira Awas Yojana &
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
2. National Food for Work & Mid day Meal Scheme
3. National Old Age pension scheme & National Family Benefit Scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Either 1 or 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following programmes was launched to tackle special problems faced by those areas, which are affected by drought conditions frequently ?
1. Desert Development Programme
2. Drought Prone Areas Programme
3. Watershed Development Programme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) All 1, 2 & 3
Ans : (E)

46. Ms. Kiran Desai is the author of which of the following books ?
(A) God of small things
(B) The inheritance of loss
(C) Midnight's children
(D) A House for Mr. Biswas
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. Which of the following is the duration of the present Five-Year Plan ?
(A) 2008–12
(B) 2009–13
(C) 2007–12
(D) 2006–11
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following Ministries was Mr. Shivraj Patil looking after immediately prior to his resignation from the cabinet ?
(A) Foreign Affairs
(B) Home Affairs
(C) Rural Development
(D) Agriculture
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India provides a guaranteed 100 days employment to rural employment seekers in India ?
(A) Bharat Nirman
(B) Swarnjayanti Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. 'Satyam' which was in news recently was operating in which of the following areas ?
(A) Textile
(B) Mining
(C) Pharma
(D) Automobiles
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Emploemployment and Career News 2009

Recruitment in Central Bank of India for Various Posts

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 13, 2009.
Total Vacancies—1275
Educational Qualifications—Graduation with 55% marks for Probationary Officers, Degree in Agriculture for Agriculture Finance Officer and Degree in Law for Law Officer.
Selection Procedure—Selection will be based on Written Test, Group Discussions and Interview. Written Test will comprise (i) Objective Test on Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, General Awareness and English, (ii) Descriptive Test.
Age Limit—21 to 30 years, for Probationary Officers, and Agriculture Finance Officer and 21 to 35 years for Law Officer.
How to Apply—Candidates are required to apply on-line through website www.centralbankofindia.co. in. No other means/mode of applications will be accepted.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment in Indian Army (Nineteenth University Entry Scheme for Permanent Commission)

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 31, 2009.
Total Vacancies—60.
Educational Qualifications— Engineering Degree.
Age Limit—19 years to 25 years for UES for those in Final Year; 18 to 24 years for those in Pre-Final Year; 20 to 27 years for TGS and SSC.
Method of Selection—Preliminary selection of prospective candidates studying in the Final/Pre-Final Year (Engineering) will be made by a selection team detailed by Command headquarters for preliminary interviews at University/College.
How to Apply—Apply on plain paper as per format given in the Website–www.joinindian.army.nic.in or www.indianarmy.nic.in.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

UPSC Geologist’s Examination 2009

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 20, 2009.
Total Vacancies—351.
Educational Qualifications— Master’s Degree in Geology or Applied Geology or Marine Geology from a recognized University.
Fee—Rs. 100.
How to Apply—The UPSC have developed an Application Form which is obtainable from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices throughout the country.
Selection Procedure—The examination shall be conducted according to following Plan : Part 1. Written examination in the subject consisting of General English, Geology Paper I, Geology Paper II, Geology Paper III; Hydrogeology. Then there will be interview.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

CSIR Combined Administrative Services Examination 2009

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 15, 2009.
Total Vacancies—133.
Educational Qualifications— A Bachelor's degree of a recognized University.
Age Limit—Upper Age Limit is 28 years.
Examination Fee—Rs. 700.
How to Apply—The application forms can also be downloaded from CSIR website www.csir.res.in. The application should be as per the format given in Employment News June 20-26, 2009.
Selection Procedure—The candidates will be selected through an All India Competitive On-line Examination comprising a Preliminary and Main Examination followed by an Interview/Personality Test.
Preliminary Examination will consist of General Science, Current Affairs, Indian History and National Movement and Indian Polity and Economy while the Mains Examination will consist of Constitution of India Analytical Reasoning, Quantitative Ability.
See Employment News June 20–26, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment in Purvanchal Gramin Bank for Office Assistant Group B

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 8, 2009.
Total Vacancies—98.
Educational Qualifications—Degree of a recognized University.
Selection Procedure—The selection will be made on the basis of performance in Written Test and Interview. The Written Test will comprise of Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness and English Language.
How to Apply—As per the format given in Employment News June 20-26, 2009.
Age Limit—18 to 26 years.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment Indian Coast Guard for Assistant Commandant

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 13, 2009.
Age Limit—20 to 24 years for Assistant Commandant (General Duty); 18 to 26 years for Assistant Commandant General duty navigator and Pilot Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Holders.
Educational Qualifications—Bachelor's degree in any discipline for Assistant Commandant (General Duty) B. Sc. with Mathematics and Physics for Assistant Commandant (General Duty Pilot Navigator), 12th class for Assistant Commandant General Duty (Pilot-Commercial Pilot License–CPL).
How to Apply—Application on plain paper in the format given in Employment News June 20-26, 2009.
Selection Procedure—The selection process consists of two phases Preliminary Selection Boards test consisting of General Awareness, General Intelligence and Reasoning and Final Selection Boards Test consisting of Psychological Test, Group testing and interview (Personality Test) will be held.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

Indira Gandhi National Open University Admission to B.Ed. Programme-2010

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 15, 2009.
Entrance Test—August 16, 2009.
Educational Qualifications—A Bachelor’s degree or a higher degree from a recognized University.
Fee—Rs. 550 in favour of IGNOU.
Log onto www.ignou.ac.in for more details.

Recruitment in NPCIL for Various Posts

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 20, 2009.
Total Vacancies—27.
Educational Qualifications—Diploma or Licentiate by HRD Ministry of HRD for Stipendiary Trainees.
Age Limit—18 to 25 years
How to Apply—Interested candidates may apply giving the reference of the advertisement published in Employment News June 20-26, 2009. The format should be as per the one given in Employment News June 20-26, 2009, which can be down-loaded from NPCIL website http:// www.npcil.nic.in
Selection Procedure—Candidates will be selected according to the merit based on the result of the written examination.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

Rajasthan Public Service Commission Ajmer Rajasthan State Eligibility Test for Lectureship 2009

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 31, 2009.
Date of Exam.—November 22, 2009.
Eligibility Conditions—Masters’ Degree or equivalent examination from University/Institutions.
Age Limit—There is no upper age limit.
Examination Fee—Rs. 550.
Scheme of Test—Paper I shall be of general nature intended to assess the teaching/research aptitude of the candidate. Paper II shall consist of questions based on the subject selected by the candidate. Paper III will only consist of descriptive questions from the subject selected by the candidate.
How to Apply—The candidates should fill in the Recruitment OMR Application form legibly and carefully as per directions.
Log on to www.rpsc.gov.in for more details.

Staff Selection Commission Recruitment for Various Posts

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 20, 2009.
Total Vacancies—28.
Educational Qualifications—B.Sc. with Botany for Botanical Assistant, Matriculation with science for Data Processing Assistant Grade A, Graduate for Information Assistant; Master’s degree for Hindi Translator. M. Sc. with Chemistry for Library and Information Assistant.
Age Limit—Upto 25 years.
See Employment News June 20-26, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment in the Indian Army (NCC Special Entry Scheme 27th Course–April 2010)

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—August 10, 2009 for NCC B/GP; Oct. 1, 2009 for Rtg Dte from Dte Gen NCC.
Total Vacancies—50 for Men and 7 for Women.
Educational Qualifications—Degree of a recognized University.
Age Limit—19 to 25 years.
Method of Selection—Interview will be held for the selection of the candidates by the SSB alongwith Group Tests, and psychological tests. Candidates who are found medically fit will be placed in order of merit as per the marks obtained in SSB Interview.
How to Apply—Apply on plain paper as per the format given in Hindustan Times dated June 27, 2009.
See Hindustan Times dated June 27, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment in the Indian Navy for Permanent (Commissioned Officer in Law Cadre of Executive Branch)

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 20, 2009.
Age Limit—24 to 27 years.
Educational Qualifications—A Degree in Law.
How to Apply—Apply on plain paper A4 Size (typed or handwritten) in the prescribed format given in Hindustan Times dated June 25, 2009.
Selection Methods—The candidates will be issued call up for
Services Selection Board (SSB interviews based on their performance in Law Degree).
Note—Only unmarried male citizens of India are eligible.
Read Hindustan Times dated June 25, 2009 for more details.

Recruitment in SBI for Management Executives

Last Date for Registration of On-line Applications—August 10, 2009.
Date of Written Exam.—Sept. 13, 2009.
Total Vacancies—500.
Educational Qualification—Postgraduate Degree / Diploma in Business Administration.
Age Limit—21 to 30 years.
Selection Methods—Written Exam (Objective) will comprise—(i) Test of English, (ii) Test of Data Interpretation and analysis, (iii) Test of Reasoning, (iv) Test of Financial Awareness and Marketing. Then There will be Descriptive Test of English Knowledge. Phase-II will comprise Group Discussion and Interview.
How to Apply—The candidates are required to apply on-line through website www.statebankofindia.com or www.sbi.co.in.
Log onto www.statebankofindia. com or www.sbi.co.in for more details.

Madhya Pradesh High Courts Civil Judges Exam 2009

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 31, 2009.
Preliminary Exam Date—Sept. 6, 2009.
Main Exam Date—Nov. 8, 2009.
Age Limit—21 to 35 years.
Examination Scheme—There will be three levels of exam—Prelims, Mains and Interview. Preliminary Exam will have hundred questions based on law. The second part of Preliminary Exam will be based on General Studies including Indian History and Culture, Current Affairs etc.
Mains Exam will have two papers one on law and the other on general studies. The Interview will be held after Mains Exam will have two papers. Paper I will have Law based questions and Paper II will have two sections—Section I will comprise essays translation etc. while Section II descriptive question based on law.

Recruitment in Life Insurance Corporation for Financial Service Executives

Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—July 15, 2009.
Total Vacancies—42.
Educational Qualifications—Bachelor’s degree.
Age Limit—21 to 35 years.
Selection Procedure—The written Test, objective test will consist of Reasoning, Numerical Aptitude and General Knowledge.
Fee—Rs. 100.
Log onto LIC Website for more details.

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2009

2009

● Rajasthan Sanskrit Education Department, Teachers Grade-III Exam. (July 22)
● Rajasthan Sanskrit Education Department, Senior Teachers Exam. (July 23-24)
● Haryana School Teachers, Eligibility Test, 2009 for Elementary Teachers (July 24)
● Haryana School Teachers, Eligibility Test, 2009 for Lecturers (July 25)
● R.A.S. (Mains) Examination (July 25-Aug. 12)
● UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2009 (July 26)
● Haryana School Teachers, Eligibility Test, 2009 for Master/Mistress (July 26)
● M.P. Guruji Eligibility Exam. (July 26)
● Chandigarh Police Constable (India Reserve Battalion) Recruitment Test (July 26)
● S.S.C. Data Entry Operator Exam., 2009 (Aug. 2)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Seed Certified Officer Selection Test, 2009 (Aug. 2)
● L.I.C. Financial Service Executives Selection Test (Aug. 2)
● Jharkhand High School Teachers Exam. (Aug. 9)
● Bank of India Clerk Exam. (Aug. 9)
● Central Bank of India Probationary Officer Examination (Aug. 16)
● IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam., 2009 (Aug. 16) (Closing Date : 15 July, 2009)
● Uttarakhand B.T.C. Entrance Exam. (Aug. 23)
● Delhi Fire Service, Fire Operator Exam. (Aug. 23 & 30)
● PNB Management Trainee Exam. (Aug. 30)
● UPSC National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2009 (Aug. 30)
● Indian Air Force Airman Selection Test Group ‘Y’ Trade (Aug.)
● SSC Central Police Organisation Sub-Inspectors Exam., 2009 (Sept. 6)
● EPFO Social Security Assistant Exam., 2009 (Sept. 6)
● M. P. Judicial Service Examination, 2009 (Sept. 6) (Closing Date : 31 July, 2009)
● Rural Development Officers and Marketing Officers Recruitment in Union Bank of India (Step. 6)
● Chhattisgarh State Service (Mains) Exam., 2008 (Sept. 12 &13)
● Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2009 (Sept. 13)
● Management Executives Recruitment in S.B.I. (Sept. 13) (On-line Closing Date : 10 Aug., 2009)
● PNB Clerical Cadre Exam. (Sept. 20)
● Delhi SSSB Trained Graduate Teachers (English, Mathematics, Natural Science) Exam. (Sept. 27)
● Bihar Telecom Technical Assistant Exam., 2008 (Oct. 4) (Closing Date : 20 July, 2009)
● Delhi SSSB Trained Graduate Teacher (Social Science) Exam. (Oct. 10)
● UPSC CPF Assistant Commandants Exam., 2009 (Oct. 11)
● Delhi SSSB Trained Graduate Teachers (Sanskrit, Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi) Exam. (Oct. 11)
● Indian Economic Service/Indian Statistical Service Examination, 2009 (Nov. 21)
● Rajasthan State Eligibility Test (SET), 2009 (Nov. 22) (Closing Date : 31 July, 2009)

Canara Bank (Clerk) Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper

Canara Bank (Clerk) Exam., 2009
(Held on 29-3-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Long ago, the Kingdom of Gandhara was ruled by a just and good King. His subjects were very content, but as the King grew older, everyone wondered anxiously what would happen to the Kingdom. After all the King did not have any children who could take over the reins of the Kingdom.

Now, the King was an avid gardener and put lots of time and effort into tending his garden and planting the finest flowers, fruits and vegetables. One day, he proclaimed, “Tomorrow, I shall distribute seeds to the children of the Kingdom. The one who is able to grow the biggest, healthiest plant within three months will be the prince or the princess.” The next day, there was a long line of parents and children outside the palace. Everyone was eager to get a seed and have the opportunity to be the next King. A poor farmer’s son was among these children. Like the King, he too was fond of gardening. His backyard was full of beautiful plants. He took the seed from the King and planted it in a pot with great care. The weeks passed and he piled it with water and manure, but no plant appeared. He tried changing the soil and even transferred the seed to another pot, but at the end of three months, nothing had grown.

At last, the day came when the children had to go to the King to show him their plants. They started walking to the palace, dressed in their best, holding beautiful plants in their hands. The farmer’s son stood sadly, watching them go by. His father had watched him working hard with the seed and felt sorry for him. “Why don’t you go to the King with the empty pot ?” he suggested. “At least he will know you tried your best.” So the farmer’s son too wore his best clothes and joined the others outside the palace, holding his empty pot in his hand and ignoring the laughter of those who saw him. Soon the King arrived and began his inspection. “I have watered this beautiful flower with the water from the sacred river,” said one. “I have kept my plant in a beautiful glass house to protect it from bad weather,” said another. “I have spent all my spare time caring for this plant,” said a third. Thus the children came forward one by one holding flowers of different shades, which were both beautiful and healthy. The King however did not look happy. At the end of the line stood the farmer’s son, and when the King reached him, he stopped in surprise. “Child, why have you come with an empty pot ? Could you not grow anything ?”

The boy looked down and said, “Forgive me, Your Highness. I tried my best, I gave it the best soil and manure I had, but the plant would not grow.” The King’s face broke into a smile. He enveloped the farmer’s son in his arms and announced, “Here is the crown prince ! I had given everyone roasted seeds, which would never grow. I wanted to see which child would admit he or she had not been able to grow anything. Only this boy told the truth I am sure he will rule our Kingdom with integrity. “And that was what happened. When the King grew old and died many years later, the farmer’s son, who had learnt everything from him, came to the throne and ruled Gandhara justly.

1. Which of the following can be said about the King’s subjects ?
1. They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
2. They had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
3. They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. When the seed did not germinate after weeks’ efforts why did the farmer’s son change the soil ?
(A) He was persevering by nature
(B) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(C) He loved gardening but was no good at it
(D) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(E) He was the King’s favourite subject
Ans : (A)

3. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King ?
(A) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
(B) He knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(C) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity
(D) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant
(E) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted seeds
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the King distribute seeds to the children of his Kingdom ?
(A) To share his love of gardening with them
(B) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(C) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(D) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace ?
(A) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(B) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(C) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(D) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant successfully ?
(A) His father had refused to help him
(B) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(C) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(D) There was something wrong with the seed
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What was worrying the King’s subjects ?
(A) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(B) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(C) The King was sick and could die at any time
(D) The King had no heir to the throne
(E) The King had selected a farmer’s son to be their King
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did not want to give up his throne
(B) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(C) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(D) The King was angry that the farmer’s son had come empty handed
(E) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow
Ans : (B)

9. What made the King unhappy with the children ?
1. They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted.
2. They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
3. Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them as King.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow anything ?
(A) Being a farmer he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(B) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(C) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(D) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Ignoring
(A) Unaware
(B) Delaying
(C) Disregarding
(D) Humiliating
(E) Lacking
Ans : (C)

12. Enveloped
(A) Surrounded
(B) Included
(C) Wrapped
(D) Closed
(E) Hid
Ans : (C)

13. Piled
(A) Handled
(B) Poured
(C) Utilised
(D) Provided
(E) Drowned
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Content
(A) Pitying
(B) Miserable
(C) Sorrow
(D) Unlucky
(E) Unfortunate
Ans : (B)

15. Avid
(A) Unenthusiastic
(B) Efficient
(C) Boring
(D) Impartial
(E) Incompetent
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(2) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a corner as punishment.
(3) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(4) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said “You are a bright boy who will achieve a lot one day”.
(5) This one word of encouragement changed the boy’s life—he went on to become a famous poet.
(6) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to know who the poet was, but no one knew.

16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. It is impossible (A) to complete (B) the entire (C) project within the specified (D) time frame. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. The Government is certain (A) to amend (B) the law to prevail (C) the crisis. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Except (A) for a few, the majority (B) of our staff has been recruited (C) locally. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. They patiently (A) explained (B) the procedure (C) for appling (D) for a loan to the villagers. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. One can succeed (A) in business unless (B) one is prepared (C) to take risks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

26. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(A) was unable to deliver what
(B) delivered none of
(C) could not deliver
(D) cannot deliver however
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(A) being so hot
(B) was so hot
(C) had been very hot
(D) was much hotter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay theirs.
(A) are equally like
(B) were a like
(C) is similar to
(D) are equivalent to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

29. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse situations and came to its own solutions.
(A) come up with their
(B) came forward with their
(C) come down with its
(D) come with its
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

30. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of self-confidence.
(A) is given her
(B) she has been given
(C) will give her
(D) by giving her
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Rajiv is the best person (A) / to advise you since (B) / he faced plenty of difficulty (C) / while setting up his business. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. The University that (A) / I taught was (B) / located on the (C) / outskirts of the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Most of my (A) / co-workers have been (B) / transferred to various (C) / neighbourly districts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Though my father spent (A) / a lot of money on (B) / our education he refused to (C) / give us no pocket money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Often ideas and concepts (A) / are passed on from (B) / one generation to the next (C) / without being questioned. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. Funds that are collected (A) / in the morning has (B) / to be disbursed as (C) / new loans by afternoon. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. Your promotion depends (A) / on the number of (B) / projects your handling (C) / during the year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Our team has spent (A) / the night entirely (B) / awake trying to decide (C) / what strategy to adopt. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. I have finally managed (A) / to convince my parents (B) / to allow myself (C) / to study abroad. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. When he took a loan (A) / for the first time (B) / he was so nervous that (C) / he repay it early. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that he was …41… “The exam did not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake.” I tried to …42… him saying, “Don’t worry, you will do better next time”. He was not pleased to hear my words. “You don’t realize how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to …43… anything.”

A few days later I got another call from him. “A …44… thing happened”, he said. “When I got my paper I saw that I had …45… marks for the question I had answered incorrectly. My friends …46… me to keep quiet as the Professor must have made a mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him saying I did not …47… the marks.” His reply was more surprising. “It was …48,” he said. “My interaction with you throughout the year …49… me that you knew how to solve the problem. That is the reason I gave you those marks.” I was happier about my son’s …50… than his marks.

41. (A) Bother
(B) Sad
(C) Unwell
(D) Distress
(E) Confused
Ans : (B)

42. (A) Pity
(B) Forgive
(C) Console
(D) Cheer
(E) Sympathise
Ans : (C)

43. (A) Strive
(B) Triumph
(C) Succeed
(D) Want
(E) Achieve
Ans : (E)

44. (A) Thrilled
(B) Routine
(C) Disastrous
(D) Funny
(E) Different
Ans : (D)

45. (A) Assigned
(B) Awarded
(C) Obtain
(D) Received
(E) Given
Ans : (E)

46. (A) Suggested
(B) Advised
(C) Warn
(D) Made
(E) Recommended
Ans : (B)

47. (A) Deserve
(B) Qualify
(C) Need
(D) Receive
(E) Justify
Ans : (A)

48. (A) Knowing
(B) Mistaken
(C) Oversight
(D) Deliberate
(E) Intend
Ans : (D)

49. (A) Persuade
(B) Merited
(C) Convinced
(D) Proved
(E) Informed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) Value
(B) Moral
(C) Truth
(D) Honesty
(E) Potential
Ans : (D)

Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper

Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam., 2009
(Held on 5-4-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $200 and just as it appeared that alternative renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the international price of oil fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a month ago, crude oil fell to less than $40 a barrel. What explains this sharp decline in the international price of oil? There has not been any major new discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the demand does not have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even a relatively big change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months, or years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had remained at over $60 a barrel for most of 2005-2007 without making any major dent in demand.

The long answer is more complex. The economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia along with dollar depreciation and commodity speculation have all had some role in the downward descent in the international price of oil. In recent years, the supply of oil has been rising but not enough to catch up with the rising demand, resulting in an almost vertical escalation in its price. The number of crude oil futures and options contracts have also increased manifold which has led to significant speculation in the oil market. In comparison, the role of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably weakened. OPEC is often accused of operating as a cartel restricting output thus keeping prices artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during the 1970s and the first half of the 80s. But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of crude pricing has moved from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with futures trading and contracts. It is true that most oil exporting regions of the world have remained politically unstable fuelling speculation over the price of crude. But there is little evidence that the geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have improved to weaken the price of oil. Threatened by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC has, in fact, announced its decision to curtail output.

However most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline except for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting nations, on the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is also bad news for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot compete with cheaper and non-renewable sources of energy.

1. Why are oil importing countries relieved ?
(A) Price of crude reached $ 147 not $ 200 as was predicted
(B) Discovery of oil reserves within their own territories
(C) Demand for crude has fallen sharply
(D) There is no need for them to invest huge amounts of money in alternative sources of energy
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following factors is responsible for rise in speculation in crude oil markets ?
1. OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices
2. The supply of oil has been rising to match demand
3. Existence of large number of oil futures and oil contracts
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. What does the phrase “the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low” imply ?
(A) When the price rises the demand for crude oil falls immediately
(B) A small change in demand will result in a sharp change in the price of crude
(C) Within a short span of time the price of crude oil has fluctuated sharply
(D) Speculation in oil does not have much of an impact on its price
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. The decline in oil prices has benefited all countries
2. Renewable energy sources are costlier than non-renewable ones
3. Lack of availability of alternative renewable energy resulted in rise in demand for crude
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Both 2 & 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. What has been the impact of the drop in oil prices ?
(A) Exploration for natural gas resources has risen
(B) The dollar has fallen sharply
(C) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil
(D) Economic depression in oil importing countries
(E) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
Ans : (C)

6. What led to alternative energy sources being considered economically feasible ?
(A) The price of oil rose by 70 per cent while renewable energy sources are cheap
(B) Exorbitant crude oil prices made alternative energy sources an attractive option
(C) Expert predictions that the price of oil would alternately escalate and plunge sharply
(D) Evidence that no new sources of oil and gas are available
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. What does the author want to convey by citing the statistic of 2005-2007 ?
(A) The prices of crude were rising gradually so people were not alarmed
(B) The dollar was a strong currency during that period
(C) Many people turned to alternative renewable energy sources because of high oil prices
(D) If the price of oil is high for a short time it does not necessarily result in a drop in consumption
(E) People did not control their demand for fuel then which created the current economic slowdown
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the current drop in oil prices ?
(A) Economic crisis in America, European and Asian nations
(B) Speculation in oil markets
(C) Weakening of the dollar
(D) Political stability in oil exporting countries
(E) All the above are not responsible for the current drop in oil prices
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. OPEC was established in 1970 to protect the interests of oil importing countries
2. When demand for oil exceeds supply there is a sharp rise in price
3. Today futures trading markets set the oil prices to a large extent
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 & 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following is the function of OPEC ?
(A) Controlling speculation in oil
(B) Ensuring profits are equally distributed to all its members
(C) Monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it
(D) Guaranteeing political instability in oil exporting countries does not impact output
(E) Determining prices of crude oil
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. INCULCATE
(A) Modify
(B) Construct
(C) Initiate
(D) Fix
(E) Instill
Ans : (D)

12. FUELLING
(A) Incentive
(B) Supplying
(C) Stimulating
(D) Irritating
(E) Restoring
Ans : (C)

13. DENT
(A) Reduction
(B) Break
(C) Tear
(D) Breach
(E) Split
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. CONVERSELY
(A) Compatibly
(B) Similarly
(C) Likely
(D) Aligning
(E) Resembling
Ans : (B)

15. WEAKEN
(A) Powerful
(B) Nourish
(C) Intense
(D) Boost
(E) Energise
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. We have hired an advertising agency to prepare a campaign to encourage people votes.
(A) People from voting
(B) Voting for people
(C) People to vote
(D) Votes by people
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. During the training programme the new recruits will be briefed about how their role in the new organisation.
(A) What their roles
(B) About their role
(C) For its roles
(D) Which are their role
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

18. The equipment is in such poor condition that we have no alternative to buy new ones.
(A) Many alternative like
(B) Any alternative except
(C) No other alternative
(D) No alternative but
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

19. Since the deadline has been changed from next week to this Thursday you should give this work priority.
(A) Be given this work priority
(B) Not give priority this work
(C) Prioritised this work
(D) Priority this work
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

20. After the success of our project we have been receiving more requests than we do not have the resources to handle them.
(A) Many requests but
(B) Most of the requests
(C) More requests that
(D) Too many requests
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D).One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. The document (A) he gave me was long and complicated (B) and I struggled (C) to understand (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. We shall have to await (A) and see if these measures (B) are sufficient (C) to address (D) the problem. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. They are negotiating (A) to try and reach (B) an agreement which will beneficial (C) everyone concerned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

24. The company has decided (A) to allott (B) a substantial (C) portion (D) of its profits to research and development. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

25. It remains (A) to be seen whether (B) these reforms (C) will be acceptable (D) by the Board. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot its graph with time on X-axis and temperature on the Y-axis,we get a continuous waveform, which is an analog signal. Analog is always continuous.
(2) The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital signal.
(3) An analog signal is a continuously varying signal, similar to a sinusoidal waveform.
(4) Any signal can be classified into one of the two types : analog and digital.
(5) In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses,where we have something or nothing.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. He has taken care to (A) / compliance with the norms (B) / so he expects the proposal (C) / to be approved without delay. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. Under the terms of the new deal (A) / the channel can broadcast (B) / the next cricket tournament to be (C) / played among India and Australia. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

33. Our equipment gets damage (A) / very often in summer (B) / because there are (C) / frequent power cuts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. We have received many (A) / of the letters from customers (B) / asking us to extend (C) / the deadline to repay their loans. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. Since I had lived there (A) / for many years the villagers (B) / were very comfortable talked (C) / to me about their problems. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

36. We have been under (A) / a lot of pressure to (B) / open fifty new stores (C) / by the ending of the year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

37. The government has (A) / launched many creative schemes (B) / to make banking services (C) / available to everyone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

38. The company is in debt (A) / and has been unable (B) / to pay their employees’ salaries (C) / for the past six months. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. This is turned out to be (A) / one of our most successful projects (B) / and we have made quite (C) / a large profit from it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

40. A non banking financial company is a (A) / financial institution similarly to a bank (B) / but it cannot issue (C) / cheque books to customers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

On October 2, 1983 the Grameen Bank Project …(41)… the Grameen Bank. We invited the Finance Minister to be the Chief Guest at our …(42)… ceremony. But when the Ministry came to …(43)… that the ceremony would take place in a remote district, they said it would not be an …(44)… place to launch a Bank and that the ceremony should be …(45)… in Dhaka so that all the top Government Officials could …(46)… We stood firm and …(47)… to them that we did not work in urban areas so it made no …(48)… to have the ceremony in a city …(49)… we had no borrowers. We had the ceremony in a big open field with the Finance Minister present as Chief Guest. For all of us who had worked so hard to …(50)… this it was a dream come true.

41. (A) reorganised
(B) merged
(C) named
(D) converted
(E) became
Ans : (E)

42. (A) opening
(B) closing
(C) dedicated
(D) inaugurate
(E) induction
Ans : (A)

43. (A) reveal
(B) know
(C) aware
(D) inform
(E) acquaint
Ans : (B)

44. (A) excellent
(B) available
(C) inauspicious
(D) appropriate
(E) obvious
Ans : (D)

45. (A) invited
(B) assembled
(C) done
(D) shifted
(E) held
Ans : (E)

46. (A) present
(B) accompany
(C) attend
(D) involve
(E) entertain
Ans : (C)

47. (A) apologised
(B) told
(C) explained
(D) denied
(E) refused
Ans : (C)

48. (A) difference
(B) sense
(C) difficulty
(D) meaning
(E) point
Ans : (B)

49. (A) where
(B) while
(C) that
(D) however
(E) which
Ans : (A)

50. (A) obey
(B) achieve
(C) discover
(D) built
(E) perform
Ans : (B)