Computer Abbreviations and Meanings
A
ACE – Access Control Entry
ACL – Access Control List
ADO – Active Data Objects
ADSL – Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
AGP – Accelerated Graphics Port
AI – Artificial Intelligence
ALGOL – Algorithmic Language
ALU – Arithmetic Logic Unit
ANSI – American National Standards Institute
AOL – America Online
API – Application Program Interface
APIPA – Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing
APT – Automatically Programmed Tooling
ARP – Address Resolution Protocol
ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
ASF – Advanced Streaming Format
ASM – Association for Systems Management
ASP – Active Server Pages
ATAPI – Advanced Technology Attachment Packet Interface
ATM – Asynchronous Transfer Mode
AUI – Attachment Unit Interface
AVI – Audio Video Interleave
B
B2B – Business to Business
B2C – Business to Commerce
BASIC – Beginner's All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
BCD – Binary Coded Decimal
BDPS – Business Data Processing Systems
BHTML – Broadcast Hyper Text Markup Language
BIOS – Basic Input Output System
BIU – Bus Interface Unit
BMP – Bitmap
BPS – Bytes Per Seconds
C
CAD – Computer Aided Design
CADD – Computer Added Drafting and Design
CAI – Computer Aided Instructuion
CAM – Computer Aided Manufacturing
CAR – Control Address Register
CASE – Computer Aided Software Engineering
CCIS – Common Channel Interoffice Signaling
CCNA – Cisco Certified Network Associate
CD–WORM – Compact Disc – Write Once Read Many
CD RW – Compact Disc ReWritable
CD – Compact Disc
C-DAC – Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
CDMA – Code Division Multiple Access
CDONTS – Collabaration on Data Objects for Windows NT Server
CDROM – Compact Disc Read Only Memory
CFG – Control Flow Graph
CGI – Common Gateway Interface
CGM – Computer Graphics Metafile
CIDR – Classless Inter–Domain Routing
CIM– Computer Integrated Manufacture
CISC – Complex Instruction Set Computers
CIX – Commercial Internet Exchange
CLR – Common Language Runtime
CMOS – Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
CMS – Content Management System
CMYK – Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Key (black)
COBOL – Common Business Oriented Language
COM – Component Object Model
CORBA – Common Object Request Broker Architecture
CPI – Clock Cycle Per Instruction
CPU – Central Processing Unit
CRC – Cyclic Redundancy Check
CRM – Customer Relationship Management
CROM – Control Read Only Memory
CRT – Cathode Ray Tube
CUI – Character User Interface
D
DAC – Digital to Analog Converter
DAO – Data Access Objects
DARPANET – Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
DAT – Digital Audio Tape
DBA – Data Base Administrator
DBMS – Data Base Management System
DCA – Defence Communication Agency
DCL – Data Control Language
DCOM – Distributed Component Object Model
DCP – Data Communication Processor
DDL – Data Definition Language
DDOS – Distributed Denial of Service
DDP – Distributed Data Processing
DFD – Data Flow Diagram
DFS – Distributed File System
DHCP – Domain Host Configuration Protocol
DHTML – Dynamics Hyper Text Markup Language
DLC – Data Link Control
DLL– Dynamic Link Library
DMA – Direct Memory Access
DML – Data Manipulation Language
DMTF – Distributed Management Test Force
DNA – Distributed Internet Architecture
DNS – Domain Name System
DOM – Document Object Model
DOS – Disk Operating System, Denial Of Service
DPI – Dots Per Inch
DRAM – Dynamic Random Access Memory
DSL – Digital Subscriber Line
DSN – Digital Subscriber Network
DTD – Document Type Definition
DVD – Digital Versatile Disc
E
E – Electronic
EAROM – Electrically Alterable Read Only Memory
EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
EDC – Electronic Digital Computer
EDCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
EEPROM – Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
EFS – Encrypted File System
EJB – Enterprise Java Beans
ENIAC – Electronics Numerical Integrator and Calculator
EPROM – Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
EROM – Erasable Read Only Memory
ERP – Enterprise Resource Planning
EULA – End User License Agreement
F
FAT – File Allocation Table
FDD – Floppy Disk Drive
FDDI – Fiber Distributed Data Interface
FDMA – Frequency Division Multiple Access
FIFO – First In First Out
FLOPS – Floating Point Operations Per Second
FO – Fiber Optics
FORTRAN – Formula Translation
FPS – Frames Per Second
FRAM – Ferro–electric Random Access Memory
FTP – File Transfer Protocol
G
GB – Giga Bytes
GIF – Graphic Interchange Format
GIGO – Garbage In Garbage Out
GML – General Markup Language
GNU – GNU's Not Unix
GPL – General Public License
GUI – Graphical User Interface
H
HDD – Hard Disk Drive
HFS – Hierarchical File System
HP – Hewlett Packard
HPC – High Performance Computing
HPFS – High Performance File System
HSR – Horizontal Scan Rate
HTML – Hyper Text Markup Language
HTTP – Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
I
IBM – International Business Machines
IC – Integrated Circuit
ICMP – Internet Control Message Protocol
ICS – Reduce Instruction Set Computer
ICT – Information and Communication Technology
IDE – Integrated Development Environment
IE – Internet Explorer
IGMP – Internet Group Management Protocol
IIS – Internet Information Server
IL – Intermediate Language
IO – Input Output
IOP – Input Output Processor
IP – Internet Protocol
IPX – Internetworked Packet Exchange
IRAM – Integration Ram
IRC – Internet Relay Chat
IrDA – Infrared Data Association
IRQ – Interrupt Request
ISAPI – Internet Server Application Program Interface
ISDN – Integrated Services Digital Network
ISO – International Standard Organization
ISP – Internet Service Provider
ISR – Interrupt Service Routine
IT – Information Technology
ITPL – Information Technology Park Limited (India)
J
JCL – Job Control Language
JDBC – Java Data Base Connectivity
JHTML – Java within Hyper Text Markup Language
JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group
JSP – Java Server Pages
K
KB – Kilo Bytes
KBPS – Kilo Bytes Per Second
L
L2TP – Layer Two Tunneling Protocol
LAN – Local Area Network
LCD – Liquid Crystal Display
LDAP – Light Weight Directory Access Control
LIFO – Last In First Out
LIPS – Logical Interfaces Per Second
LOC – Lines Of Code
LSI – Large Scale Integration
LSP – Layered Service Provider
M
MAC – Media Access Control
MAN – Metropolitan Area Network
MAU – Multi–station Access Unit
MB – Mega Bytes
MBONE – Multicast Backbone
MBPS – Mega Bytes Per Second
MBR – Master Boot Record
MCP – Microsoft Certified Professional
MCS – Multicast Server
MCSA – Microsoft® Certified Systems Administrator
MCSD – Microsoft® Certified Solution Developer
MCSE – Microsoft® Certified System Engineer
MDI – Multiple Document Interface
MDS– Microcomputer Development System
MFC – Microsoft Foundation Classes
MFT – Master File Table
MG – Mega Bytes
MICR – MagneticInk Characters Reader
MIDI – Musical Instrument Digital Interface
MIMD – Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
MIME – Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
MIPS – Millions of Instructions Per Second
MISD – Multiple Instruction Single Data
MODEM – Modulator and Demodulator
MP3 – Motion Pictures Experts Group Layer – 3
MPEG – Motion Pictures Experts Group
MS – MicroSoft
MSDN – MicroSoft Developer Network
MSIIS – Microsoft Internet Information Server
MSIL – Microsoft Intermediate Language
MSMQ – Microsoft Message Queue
MSN – MicroSoft Network
MSRAP – Microsoft Remote Administration Protocol
MSRPC – Microsoft Remote Procedure Call
MTS – Microsoft Transaction Server
MTU – Maximum Transmission Unit
MUDS – MultiUser Dungeons
N
NAS – Network Attached Storage
NASSCOM – National Association of Software & Service Companies
NCP – Network Control Protocol
NDIS – Network Driver Interface Specification
NDRO – Nondestructive Read Out
NetBEUI – NetBIOS Enhanced User Interface
NIC – National Informatics Centre,
NIIT – National Institute of Information Technology
NNTP – Network News Transfer Protocol
NOW – Network Of Workstations
NSFNET – National Science Foundation Network
NT (Windows) – New Technology
NTFS – New Technology File System
NTP – Network Time Protocol
O
OCP – Oracle Certified Professional
OCR – Optical Character Readers
ODBC – Open Data Base Connectivity
OLE – Object Linking and Embedding
OMR – Optical Mark Reader
ONE – Open Network Architecture
OOA – Object Orient Analysis
OOAD – Object Oriented Analysis and Design
OOP – Object Oriented Programming
OOPS – Object Oriented Programming System
OPEN GL – Open Graphics Library
OS – Operating System
OSI – Open System Interconnection
P
PC – Personal Computer
PCI – Peripheral Component Interconnect
PCMCIA – Personal Computer Memory Card International Association
PDA – Personal Digital Assistant
PDF – Portable Document Format
PDL – Page Description Language
PDU – Protocol Data Unit
PHP – PHP Hypertext Processor
PIC – Programming Interrupt Control
PILOT – Programmed Inquiry Learning Or Teaching
PLA – Programmable Logic Array
PLC – Programmable Logic Controller
PNG – Portable Network Graphics
PNP – Plug And Play
POP – Post Office Protocol
POST – Power On Self Test
PPP – Peer to Peer Protocol
PPTP – Point To Point Tunneling Protocol
PROM – Programmable Read Only Memory
PS – Post Script
PSN – Processor Serial Number
Q
QoS – Quality of Service
R
RADSL – RateAdaptive Digital Subscribes Line
RAID – Redundant Array of Independent Disks
RAM – Random Access Memory
RAMDAC – Random Access Memory Digital to Analog Converter
RAS – Remote Access Network
RD RAM – Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory
R-DAT – Rotating Digital Audio Tape
RDBMS – Relational Data Base Management System
RDO – Remote Data Objects
RDP – Remote Desktop Protocol
RFC – Request for Comments
RGB – Red Green Blue
RICS – Reduced Instruction Set Computer
RIP – Raster Image Processor
RISC – Reduced Instruction Set Computer
ROM – Read Only Memory
RPC – Remote Procedure Call
RTC – Real Time Clock
RTF – Rich Text Format
RTOS – Real Time Operating System
S
S-DAT – Stationary Digital Audio Tape
SACK – Selective Acknowledgements
SAM – Security Access Manager
SAP – Service Access Point, Systems Applications Products
SCMP – Software Configuration Management Plan
SCSI – Small Computers Systems Interface
SD RAM – Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
SDD – Software Design Description
SDK – Software Development Kit
SDL – Storage Definition Language
SDN – Integrated Service Digital Network
SDRAM – Static Dynamic Random Access Memory
SDSL – Symmetric Digital Subscribes Line
SG RAM – Synchronous Graphics Random Access Memory
SGML – Standard Generalized Markup Language
SIM – Subscriber Identification Module
SIMD – Single Instruction Multiple Data
SISD – Single Instruction Single Data
SIU – Serial Interface Unit
SMP – Symmetric Multi Process
SMS – Short Message Service
SMTP – Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
SNA – System Network Architecture
SNAP – Sub Network Access Protocol
SNMP – Simple Network Management Protocol
SNOBOL – String Oriented Symbolic Language
SOAP – Simple Object Access Protocol
SPX – Sequenced Packet Exchange
SQA – Statistical Quality Assurance
SQL – Structured Query Language
SRAM – Static Random Access Memory
SRS – Software Requirements Specification
STP – Shielded Twisted Pair
SVVP – Software Verification and Validation Plan
SW – Software
T
TAPI – Telephony Application Program Interface
TB – Tera Bytes
TCP – Transmission Control Protocol
TCP/IP – Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
TDI – Transport Data Interface
TDMA – Time Division Multiple Access
TPM – Transactions Processing Monitor
TSR – Terminate and Stay Residents
U
UDD – User Datagram Protocol
UDP – User Datagram Protocol
UI – User Interface
UML – Unified Modelling Language
UNC – Universal Naming Convention
UNIX – Uniplexed Information and Computer Systems
URL – Universal Resource Locator
USB – Universal Serial Bus
USRT– Universal Synchronous Receiver Transmitted
UTP – Unshielded Twisted Pair
V
VAN – Virtual Area Network
VAST– Very Small Aperture Terminal
VB – Visual Basic
VC++ – Visual C++
VCD – Video Compact Disc
VDL – View Definition Language
VGA – Video Graphics Array
VHS – Video Home System
VLIW – Very Long Instruction Words
VLSI – Very Large Scale Integrated Circuits
VPN – Virtual Private Network
VRAM – Video Random Access Memory
VRML – Virtual Reality Modelling Language
VS – Visual Studio
VSNL – Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited
VVR – Software Validation and Validation Report
VXD – Virtual Device Driver
W
W3C – World Wide Web Consortium
WAIS – Wide Area Information Servers
WAN – Wide Area Network
WAP – Wireless Application Protocol
WBEM – Web Base Enterprise Management
WDM – Wave Division Multiplexing
WHQL – Windows Hardware Quality Lab
Windows ME – Windows Millennium Edition
Windows NT – Windows New Technology
Windows XP – Windows eXPerienced
WINS – Windows Internet Name Services
WMI – Windows Management Instrumentation
WML – Wireless Markup Language
WORM – Write Once Read Many
WSH – Windows Script Host
WWW – World Wide Web
WYSIWYG – What You See Is What You Get
X
XHTML – eXtensible Hyper Text Markup Language
XML – eXtensible Markup Language
XSL – eXtensible Style Sheet language
Y
Y2K – Year 2000
Z
ZIF – Zero Insertion Force
[ Read More... ]
Indian Politics Quizzes
1. The strength of the Constituent Assembly, after the withdrawal of the
Muslim League,was reduced to–
(A) 299 members (B) 329 members
(C) 342 members (D) 359 members
See Answer:
2. The Preamble was proposed before the drafting Committee by–
(A) B. N. Rao (B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Sardar Patel
See Answer:
3. On which day the first meeting of the constituent assembly were held?
(A) 9 December, 1946 (B) 16 August, 1947
(C) 26 January,1946 (D) 30 January, 1947
See Answer:
4. How many committees were set up by the Constituent Assembly for framing the
Constitution of India?
(A) Thirteen (B) Nine
(C) Seventeen (D) Seven
See Answer:
5. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(A) Lord Mountbatten (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Pand. J. L.Nehru
See Answer:
6. 'Bill of Rights and Judicial Review' of the Indian Constitution was
incorporated from–
(A) Ireland (B) U.S.A.
(C) England (D) Canada
See Answer:
7. Directive Principles of the Indian constitution was incorporated from–
(A) England (B) Ireland
(C) U.S.A. (D) Canada
See Answer:
8. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up–
(A) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan,1946
(B) Under a resolution of the Provincial Government
(C) Under the Indian Independence Act,1947
(D) By the Indian National Congress
See Answer:
9. Which one of the following acted as the Provinsional President of the
Constituent Assembly?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) D. Sachhidanand Sinha
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) J. L. Nehru
See Answer:
10. The words "Satyameva Jayathe", inscribed on the National Emblem,are taken
from–
(A) Jataka (B) Mundaka Upanishad
(C) Mahabharatha (D) Puranas
See Answer:
[ Read More... ]
UPSC Indian Polity Objective Question and Answer
1. If it is desirable to establish a Presidential form of government in India,
the foremost and immediate amendment has to be made affecting the–
(A) System of Judiciary
(B) Composition of the Parliament
(C) Powers of the Executive
(D) Provisions of the Fundamental Rights
See Answer:
2. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented–
(A) In any court of the country
(B) In the Supreme Court only
(C) In the High Court only
(D) In either Supreme Court of High Court
See Answer:
3. Who amongst the following can be removed without Parliament's resolution?
(A) Governor of a state
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Any judge of a High Court
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
See Answer:
4. If a question asked by a Member of Parliament is a starred one, he will get–
(A) A written answer
(B) An oral answer
(C) Answer in the Zero hour
(D) No answer
See Answer:
5. According to the provisions of the Constitution, which one of the following
can be abolished?
(A) Legislative Assembly (B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha
See Answer:
6. Which of the following conditions is necessary to make party system
successful?
(A) Political parties should be organised on caste basis
(B) Political parties should give more importance to the local problems than
national issues
(C) Political parties should try to solve the economic and political problems
(D) Political parties should not allow the people to take active interest in the
politics
See Answer:
7. Ultimate object of a political party is–
(A) To contest election
(B) To expose the weakness of rival political parties
(C) To form and run their own government according to their own policies
(D) To increase their strength or membership
See Answer:
8. Political equality means–
(A) Every citizen should be given political education
(B) Every citizen should be given a chance to work in the government turn by
turn
(C) Every citizen should be given right to vote and contest election
(D) Every citizen should be a member of any political party
See Answer:
9. Adult franchise is disadvantageous–
(A) If the people cast their votes in favour of those candidates who give them
money
(B) If the votes caste their votes to the candidates belonging to their own
castes or religion and not to the able candidates
(C) If the people caste their votes thought lessly
(D) In all the above cases
See Answer:
10. Some articles of the Constitution of India were enforced even before 26th
January, 1950, when were they enforced?
(A) December 24, 1949 (B) October 26, 1949
(C) November 26, 1949 (D) December 26, 1949
See Answer:
11. For the Minority Representation, which of the following method is adopted?
(A) Proportional Representation System
(B) Separate Electorate System
(C) Joint Electorate with Reservation of seats system
(D) All the above
See Answer:
12. Indian constitution, for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes,
provides–
(A) Separate Electorate System
(B) Joint Electorate with reservation of seats System
(C) Cumulative Vote System
(D) List System
See Answer:
13. Separate Electorate was provided to the Sikh community in–
(A) 1909 (B) 1919
(C) 1935 (D) 1947
See Answer:
14. Separate Electorate System in 1935, was provided to–
(A) The Muslims (B) The Sikhs
(C) The Hindus (D) The Anglo-Indians and the Indian Christians
See Answer:
15. The first Indian appointed to the Viceroy's Council as an Advocate General
of Bengal was–
(A) Surendra Nath Banerjee (B) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (D) Madan Mohan Malviya
See Answer:
16. The Indian federation is similar to that of–
(A) United States of America (B) Switzerland
(C) Australia (D) Canada
See Answer:
17. Which of the following agencies selects the officers of the All India
Service?
(A) Home Ministry
(B) National Defence Academy
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) National Development Committee
See Answer:
18. Which of the following persons we associated with the promotion of local
self-government in India?
(A) Minto (B) Morley
(C) Ripon (D) Wavel
See Answer:
19. Who is the head of the State in India?
(A) The President (B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Parliament (D) The Queen of England
See Answer:
20. A state of emergency can be declared in India by–
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President
(C) The Parliament (D) The Government of a State
See Answer:
[ Read More... ]
Quiz on Indian Polity with Answers
1. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, will be decided by the–
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister
See Answer:
2. After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is constituted. In its first
session, the Speaker is elected. Who presides over this first session?
(A) Ex-Speaker
(B) Ex-Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Oldest member of the House
See Answer:
3. The 'Indian Parliament' comprise of the–
(A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President
(C) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
See Answer:
4. In the event of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery of any state,
under which one of the following Articles can President's Rule be imposed?
(A) 352 (B) 256
(C) 360 (D) 370
See Answer:
5. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the
establishment of socio-economic justice in India?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
See Answer:
6. Indian constitution is–
(A) More rigid than American constitution
(B) More flexible than English constitution
(C) More rigid than both English and American constitutions
(D) More rigid than English constitution but flexible than American constitution
See Answer:
7. Indian constitution was prepared in–
(A) 2 years and 11 months
(B) 2 years and 18 months
(C) 2 years and 18 days
(D) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
See Answer:
8. Indian constitution after its completion was adopted by Constituent Assembly
on–
(A) January 26, 1950 (B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947 (D) October 2, 1948
See Answer:
9. Which of the following is not included in the preamble to the Indian
constitution?
(A) Justice social, economic and political
(B) Education to men, women and children
(C) Liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship
(D) To promote equality of status and opportunity to all
See Answer:
10. The idea of Fundamental Rights was taken from–
(A) England (B) America
(C) Iran (D) Ancient India
See Answer:
11. A society which is governed for the good of all, is called–
(A) Capitalist Society (B) Socialist Society
(C) Anarchy (D) Dictatorship
See Answer:
12. Who accords recognition to a political party as a national party?
(A) President (B) Law Minister
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker (D) Election Commission
See Answer:
13. Internationalism leads to–
(A) The interference by one nation in the matter of other nation
(B) The domination of a nation or a group of nations over other nations or a
group of nations
(C) Useful co-operations among the nations
(D) Perpetual warfare among the nations
See Answer:
14. Which of the following is the main obstacle in the way of development of
Internationalism?
(A) Sovereignity of the state
(B) Racial discrimination
(C) Imperialism and colonialism
(D) All the above
See Answer:
15. Of the following which is the main course for the progress of
Internationalism in the world?
(A) Growing trade competition among the nations
(B) Race of supremacy among the nations
(C) Opposition to the establishment of world government
(D) Growing interdependence of the nation on one another in the field of
education, trade and technology
See Answer:
16. The 61st constitution (Amendment) Act 1989, relates to–
(A) The grant of special states to the Union Territory of Delhi
(B) Deletion of the right to property from the list of fundamental rights
(C) The establishment of autonomous District Council in Tripura
(D) The lowering of minimum voting age from 21 to 18
See Answer:
17. The non-aligned group of State includes–
(A) Zimbabwe (B) South Africa
(C) Germany (D) France
See Answer:
18. Which one of the following activities was common to both Sir Syed Ahmad
Khan and Madan Mohan Malviya ?
(A) Opposition to the principles of rule of majority
(B) Supporting the continuance of the British rule in India
(C) Opposition to the policies of Indian National Congress
(D) Establishing education institutions for higher education
See Answer:
19. Who among the following presides over the Rajya Sabha meetings?
(A) The Speaker (B) The President of India
(C) The Deputy Speaker (D) The Vice-President of India
See Answer:
20. The Governor of a state is appointed by–
(A) The Chief Minister of the State (B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Chief Justice of India
See Answer:
[ Read More... ]
Quiz on Indian Constitution with Answers
1. Which one of the following is a national political party?
(A) All India Anna D. M. K. (B) National Conference
(C) Communist Party of India (D) All India Forward Block
See Answer:
2. Which of the following is a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan (B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar (D) Malaysia
See Answer:
3. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on–
(A) 24 October (B) 7 November
(C) 10 December (D) 25 December
See Answer:
4. Individual liberty is best reflected in a–
(A) Socialist State (B) Communist State
(C) Welfare State (D) Fascist State
See Answer:
5. Universal Adult Franchise makes a government–
(A) More responsive
(B) More efficient
(C) More popular amongst the minorities
(D) More stable
See Answer:
6. President of the Constituent Assembly with whose signature the Indian
constitution was adopted was–
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
See Answer:
7. The ultimate authority according to the preamble of the Indian constitution
vests in–
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President, Prime Minister and rulers of native states
(D) People of India as a whole
See Answer:
8. The parliamentary set up in the Indian constitution has been adopted from–
(A) U.S.A. (B) Russia
(C) England (D) All the above
See Answer:
9. Which of the following has been borrowed from Ireland by the framers of the
Indian constitution ?
(A) Preamble
(B) Nomination of the members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Directive principles of states policy
(D) Supreme Court
See Answer:
10. Idea of concurrent list in Indian constitution was borrowed from–
(A) England (B) America
(C) Australia (D) Russia
See Answer:
11. Which of the following was not the work of the League of Nations?
(A) To prevent wars in the world
(B) To encourage the feelings of co-operation among the nations
(C) To settle the disputes among the nations in a peaceful manner
(D) To make every nation militarily strong
See Answer:
12. Which of the following organisation was established to promote peace and
co-operation among the nations of the world?
(A) The Holy Aliance
(B) The League of Nations
(C) The United Nations Organisation
(D) All the above
See Answer:
13. The League of Nations was established in–
(A) 1917 (B) 1918
(C) 1919 (D) 1920
See Answer:
14. The United Nations Charter was signed in–
(A) Postdam (B) Yalta
(C) San Fransisco (D) Tehran
See Answer:
15. The main organ of U.N.O. is–
(A) General Assembly (B) Security Council
(C) International Court of Justice (D) All the above
See Answer:
16. Which one of the following countries has a presidential form of Government?
(A) India (B) Britain
(C) Canada (D) U.S.A.
See Answer:
17. Who among the following Indians was the President of the International
Court of Justice at Hague?
(A) R. S. Pathak (B) P. N. Bhagwati
(C) A. N. Mullah (D) Shree Nagendra Singh
See Answer:
18. 'The relation between individual and society is not one-sided: both are
essential for the comprehension of either." Whose words are these?
(A) Karl Marx (B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Plato (D) Mac Iver
See Answer:
19. A citizen of India is arrested and detained without trial. Which of the
following writs should he invoke in the Court to secure freedom?
(A) Quo Warranto (B) Certiorari
(C) Mandamus (D) Habeas Corpus
See Answer:
20. In which of the following countries are direct democratic checks such as
Referendum, Initiative and Recall provided for?
(A) U.S.S.R. (B) U.K.
(C) Australia (D) Switzerland
See
Answer
(Next Indian Polity Quiz No. 19 )
[ Read More... ]
Questions on Indian Polity and Economy
1. In Dictorship Executive is responsible to–
(A) An advisory council
(B) The people's representatives
(C) The high administrative officers
(D) No one
See Answer:
2. While casting her vote in any election, a woman exercises her–
(A) Civics right (B) Social right
(C) Natural right (D) Political right
See Answer:
3. In India, the states derive their power from the–
(A) People (B) Constitution
(C) State Assembly (D) Parliament
See Answer:
4. How many representatives for Vidhan Parishad of U.P. are elected from the
teacher's constituency?
(A) 18 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
See Answer:
5. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is
initiated in–
(A) The joint sitting of both the House
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) Any of the two Houses
See Answer:
6. Power and position of Supreme Court in India are very much like those of
the highest court in–
(A) Russia (B) England
(C) Japan (D) U.S.A.
See Answer:
7. Indian constitution contains–
(A) 9 schedules and 300 articles
(B) 335 articles and 11 schedules
(C) 400 articles and 10 schedules
(D) 395 (444) articles and 12 schedules
See Answer:
8. Of the following which is not the salient feature of Indian constitution–
(A) Lengthiest document in the world
(B) Directive principles of state policy
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Presidential type of government
See Answer:
9. Into how many parts the constitution of India divided?
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 32 (D) 22
See Answer:
10. In our constitution, Directive principles of the state policy aim at–
(A) Free compulsory education for children
(B) Equal wages for equal work for women and men
(C) Equitable distribution of wealth
(D) All the above
See Answer:
11. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of U.N.O. ?
(A) International Labour Organisation
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Health Organisation
(D) World Hockey Federation
See Answer:
12. Where is the permanent head quarter of International Court of Justice?
(A) London (B) Moscow
(C) Washington (D) The Hague
See Answer:
13. The Indian, who was elected as the President of the General Assembly at its
eighth sesssion was–
(A) Krishna Mohan (B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Mrs. Vijai Lakshmi Pandit (D) Sardar Swaran Singh
See Answer:
14. Which one of the following is the essential function of the General
Assembly?
(A) To discuss the problems facing the world
(B) Took prepare the whole budget for U.N.O. and to find out the ways and means
to meet the expenses therein
(C) To prepare and improve the International Laws
(D) All the above
See Answer:
15. Of the following, which country is not the permanent member of the Security
Council?
(A) Russia (B) U.S.A.
(C) Britain (D) Italy
See Answer:
16. Aristotle, the father or Political Science, believed that the State
continues to exist for the sake of good life. His belief is right because–
(A) The state alone can provide opportunities for the proper development of the
individual's faculties
(B) State has the power to regulate and control
(C) State is what is made by the people
(D) State is the result of a contract
See Answer:
17. The Government of the Union of India is parliamentary in character. One of
the characteristics of a parliamentary system of Government is–
(A) The Ministry is collectively responsible to both Houses of Parliament
(B) The Ministry is not responsible to the parliament
(C) The Ministry is responsible to the Head of the State
(D) The Ministry is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
See Answer:
18. Judiciary is one of three branches of modern governments. In some
governments the principle of judicial supremacy is recognised in theory as well
as in practice. It is because–
(A) The judges possess knowledge the laws
(B) The judges can help in making the laws
(C) There is no need to protect the rights of the citizens
(D) The judiciary is impartial and superior to other branches of the government
as it interprets the constitution
See Answer:
19. Mahatma Gandhi often stressed the importance of villages and wanted the
establishment of 'Gram Raj' in India. It was because–
(A) Gandhiji was born in a village
(B) Village administration is easy
(C) Village people are good and hard working
(D) Villages are the backbone of the nation and help for the welfare of all
people
See Answer:
20. In the general elections to the 13th Lok Sabha, the Congress Party secured–
(A) 110 (B) 114
(C) 112 (D) 122
See Answer:
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